a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches which of the following instru a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches which of the following instru
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using nitroglycerin transdermal patches is to remove the patch every night before bedtime. This practice helps prevent tolerance to the medication's effects. Continuous exposure to nitroglycerin can result in the body becoming less responsive to its therapeutic effects over time, reducing its efficacy in managing the prescribed condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Applying the patch to a different location each day does not address the issue of tolerance. Massaging the patch area gently after application is not recommended as it may alter drug absorption. Shaving the area before applying the patch is unnecessary and may increase the risk of skin irritation.

2. What is the first-line treatment for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction because it acts quickly to open the airways by relaxing the muscles in the air passages. Cromolyn (Choice B) is used for asthma prevention rather than acute wheezing. Methylprednisolone (Choice C) and Aminophylline (Choice D) are not the first-line treatments for acute wheezing in the setting of an allergic reaction.

3. Donald is a 61 y.o. man with diverticulitis. Diverticulitis is characterized by:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diverticulitis is characterized by crampy lower left quadrant pain and a low-grade fever.

4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is crucial in managing patients with chronic heart failure as it helps assess fluid balance. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to detect any sudden weight gain, which could indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure. This intervention helps in adjusting treatment plans promptly. Providing fluid restriction (Choice B) can be a part of managing heart failure but is not the primary intervention mentioned in the question. Administering diuretics (Choice C) is a treatment modality for heart failure but does not encompass the comprehensive approach to patient management. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not specifically address the direct assessment of fluid status as daily weight monitoring does.

5. A 28-year-old male patient with type 1 diabetes reports how he manages his exercise and glucose control. Which behavior indicates that the nurse should implement additional teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because increasing exercise when ketones are present in the urine is inappropriate and potentially dangerous for a patient with type 1 diabetes. This behavior can worsen the ketosis and lead to further complications. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate appropriate self-management strategies for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Carrying hard candies during exercise can help prevent hypoglycemia, going for a walk with a glucose level of 200 mg/dL can help lower blood sugar, and having a snack before physical activity can provide necessary energy.

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