a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis which of the following statements by the client indic
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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client has a new prescription for Etanercept for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Etanercept can cause bone marrow suppression, so it is crucial to monitor blood counts regularly to detect any early signs of adverse effects.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking aspirin while on Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin and other NSAIDs can further potentiate this risk, so they should be avoided while taking Clopidogrel to reduce the chance of bleeding complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. There is no specific instruction to take Clopidogrel with food or at bedtime. Avoiding foods high in potassium is not directly related to Clopidogrel use.

3. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Eat a diet high in potassium.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Instructing the client to eat a diet high in potassium can help counteract the potassium-wasting effect of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide can be taken at different times of the day based on individual needs. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium levels. Choice D is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a general instruction for all clients taking furosemide.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

5. When discussing immunizations, which vaccine series is typically completed before a child's first birthday?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rotavirus vaccine. The rotavirus vaccine series is usually completed before a child's first birthday. It is given to infants in a series of doses starting at 2 months of age and must be completed by 8 months of age. This vaccine helps protect against severe diarrhea and vomiting caused by rotavirus infection, which is common in infants and young children. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, Meningococcal conjugate vaccine, and Varicella vaccine are not typically completed before a child's first birthday.

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