ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for Etanercept for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to get my blood drawn periodically while on this medication.
- B. I should stop taking this medication if I develop a rash.
- C. I will need to limit my alcohol intake to no more than one drink per week.
- D. I should self-administer this medication subcutaneously.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Etanercept can cause bone marrow suppression, so it is crucial to monitor blood counts regularly to detect any early signs of adverse effects.
2. A client in a critical care unit is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?
- A. Prone
- B. On the nonoperative side
- C. Sims'
- D. Semi-Fowler's
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is crucial for optimal ventilation. This position helps improve lung expansion on the remaining side, facilitating better oxygenation and preventing complications like atelectasis. Placing the client prone, on the nonoperative side, or in Sims' position would not provide the same respiratory benefits post-pneumonectomy.
3. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?
- A. Proximal convoluted tubule
- B. Loop of Henle
- C. Collecting duct
- D. Distal convoluted tubule
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.
4. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Ephedrine?
- A. COPD
- B. Hypotension
- C. Congestion
- D. Incontinence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ephedrine is not typically used to treat COPD. While it can help relieve symptoms like congestion and hypotension, it is not a first-line treatment for COPD. Incontinence is not a condition commonly treated with Ephedrine either.
5. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Fomepizole
- B. Naloxone
- C. Phytonadione
- D. Diphenhydramine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms of face spasms after receiving Prochlorperazine indicate acute dystonia, a known side effect. Diphenhydramine is commonly administered to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as muscle spasms, caused by medications like Prochlorperazine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Diphenhydramine to alleviate the client's symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used in opioid overdose, and Phytonadione is vitamin K, used to reverse the effects of certain blood thinners.
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