ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for Etanercept for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to get my blood drawn periodically while on this medication.
- B. I should stop taking this medication if I develop a rash.
- C. I will need to limit my alcohol intake to no more than one drink per week.
- D. I should self-administer this medication subcutaneously.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Etanercept can cause bone marrow suppression, so it is crucial to monitor blood counts regularly to detect any early signs of adverse effects.
2. A preschooler weighing 44 lb is to receive Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally every 12 hr. The available amoxicillin suspension is 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 4 mL
- B. 5 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 3 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the dosage per administration: First, convert the weight to kg (44 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 20 kg). Then, calculate the required dosage per dose: (20 mg/kg/day x 20 kg) / 2 (for every 12 hr dosing) = 200 mg per dose. To determine the mL per dose, divide the required dosage by the concentration of the amoxicillin suspension: (200 mg / 250 mg) x 5 mL = 4 mL per dose. Therefore, the correct answer is 4 mL. Choice B (5 mL) is incorrect because the correct calculation yields 4 mL. Choices C (6 mL) and D (3 mL) are also incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
3. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.
- A. Antidepressant
- B. Protease inhibitor
- C. Beta antagonist
- D. H antagonist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Drugs ending in -tidine are histamine (H2) receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine at the H2 receptors, commonly used to reduce stomach acid production. Therefore, the correct answer is an 'H antagonist.' It is essential to be familiar with drug suffixes as they can provide clues to the drug's class and function.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare provider should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are prescribed Furosemide. While monitoring other electrolytes like sodium and magnesium may also be important in certain situations, the priority for a client prescribed Furosemide is to monitor serum potassium levels due to the risk of hypokalemia.
5. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.
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