ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase protein intake to 1.5 g/kg/day
- C. Restrict sodium intake to 1 g/day
- D. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excess phosphorus can lead to complications such as bone and heart issues in these patients. Increasing protein intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended as it can lead to increased waste production that the kidneys may struggle to eliminate. Restricting sodium intake (Choice C) is important for managing blood pressure, but the recommendation is usually higher than 1 g/day. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not typically advised in patients with kidney disease, as they often need to limit potassium due to impaired kidney function.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?
- A. Propofol
- B. Pancuronium
- C. Promethazine
- D. Pentoxifylline
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used for procedures like colonoscopies to induce moderate sedation. Pancuronium (Choice B) is a neuromuscular blocking agent used as a paralyzing agent during surgery, not for sedation. Promethazine (Choice C) is an antihistamine often used for nausea and vomiting, not as an anesthetic. Pentoxifylline (Choice D) is a medication used to improve blood flow and is not indicated for anesthesia.
3. What are the manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?
- A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
- B. Severe nausea and vomiting
- C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
- D. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) include restlessness, confusion, and irritability. These symptoms are a result of the brain being under pressure inside the skull. Severe nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with increased intracranial pressure in children. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure; instead, hypertension and bradycardia may be seen in Cushing's reflex, which is a late sign of increased IICP. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response (Choice D) are also not primary manifestations of increased intracranial pressure, although altered pupil response, like a non-reactive or dilated pupil, can be seen in some cases.
4. What is the first medication to administer for a patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction?
- A. Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer
- B. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
- C. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line medication for wheezing due to its rapid bronchodilatory effects. Choice B, Cromolyn, is used more for preventing allergic reactions rather than acute relief of wheezing. Choice C, Methylprednisolone, is a steroid used for its anti-inflammatory effects and is not the initial choice for acute relief of wheezing. Choice D, Aminophylline, is a bronchodilator but is not the first-line treatment for wheezing due to allergic reactions.
5. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on the ECG
- B. Elevated ST segments on the ECG
- C. Widened QRS complex
- D. Prominent U waves on the ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.
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