what ecg changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Immunosuppressant medications need to be taken for up to 1 year
B. Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection
C. The surgical site will heal in 3 to 4 weeks after surgery
D. Begin 45 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise per day following discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Shortness of breath is an important sign of transplant rejection. Other manifestations of rejection include fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Immunosuppressant medications are typically required for life, not just up to 1 year. C) The surgical site healing time can vary and may take longer than 3 to 4 weeks. D) Starting a specific exercise regimen should be individualized and guided by healthcare providers; a general recommendation like 45 minutes of exercise per day may not be suitable for all heart transplant recipients.

3. What teaching should be provided to a patient following cataract surgery?

A. Avoid NSAIDs
B. Wear dark glasses outdoors
C. Creamy white drainage is normal
D. Avoid alcohol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching to provide to a patient following cataract surgery is to avoid NSAIDs. NSAIDs should be avoided post-cataract surgery to reduce the risk of bleeding. Choice B, wearing dark glasses outdoors, is important to protect the eyes from bright light but is not directly related to medication use. Choice C, stating that creamy white drainage is normal, is incorrect as drainage should be monitored for excessive redness, swelling, or pain. Choice D, avoiding alcohol, is not a direct post-cataract surgery teaching point related to medication use.

4. What is the initial action for treating chest pain in acute coronary syndrome?

A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Administer aspirin
C. Check cardiac enzymes
D. Obtain IV access

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial action for treating chest pain in acute coronary syndrome is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reducing the workload on the heart and improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Administering aspirin can also be beneficial, but the priority is to address chest pain promptly. Checking cardiac enzymes and obtaining IV access are important steps but are not the initial actions needed to alleviate chest pain in acute coronary syndrome.

5. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Serum albumin levels
C. Hemoglobin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.