Nursing Elites

1. What are the expected symptoms in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness
• C. Seizures and convulsions
• D. Severe headache and vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' Thrombotic strokes typically result in a gradual onset of symptoms due to a blockage in a blood vessel in the brain, leading to a slow progression of neurological deficits. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, convulsions, severe headache, and vomiting are more commonly associated with other types of strokes or medical conditions, such as hemorrhagic strokes, epilepsy, or migraines.

2. What are the expected ECG changes in hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST elevation
• C. Wide QRS complex
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are the most common ECG change seen in patients with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. This results in T wave flattening or inversion. ST elevation is typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Wide QRS complex is more associated with hyperkalemia than hypokalemia. Tall T waves are often seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

3. What is a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST elevation
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. When potassium levels are low, it can lead to changes in the ECG, such as T wave flattening. This alteration is important to recognize as it indicates potential electrolyte imbalances. ST elevation (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Widened QRS complex (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperkalemia.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig's sign?

• A. After stroking the lateral area of the foot, the client's toes contract and draw together
• B. After hip flexion, the client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain
• C. The client's voluntary movement is not coordinated
• D. The client reports pain and stiffness when flexing their neck

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Kernig's sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding suggests meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig's sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, Choice C refers to coordination deficits, and Choice D indicates neck pain and stiffness, which are not related to Kernig's sign.

5. What is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Serum albumin levels
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it serves as a key indicator of immune function. A count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choice B, serum albumin levels, though important for assessing nutritional status, is not the priority lab value for HIV monitoring. Choice C, white blood cell count, is a nonspecific measure of immune function and may not accurately reflect the status of the immune system in HIV patients. Choice D, hemoglobin levels, are essential for evaluating anemia but are not the primary lab value for monitoring HIV.

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