Nursing Elites

1. What is an escharotomy and why is it performed?

• A. A surgical incision made to improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. A procedure to remove dead tissue from a wound
• C. A procedure to remove excess fluid from the lungs
• D. A procedure to relieve pain from burns

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical procedure involving an incision through the eschar (dead tissue) to relieve pressure in burn injuries. It is performed to improve circulation to the affected area, prevent further damage, and restore blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because an escharotomy is not primarily focused on removing dead tissue but rather on relieving pressure. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a procedure related to pulmonary issues, not burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect because while pain relief may be a result of an escharotomy, it is not the primary purpose of the procedure.

2. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has sustained multiple injuries. The nurse observes the client's thorax moving inward during inspiration and outward during expiration. The nurse should suspect which of the following injuries?

• A. Flail chest
• B. Hemothorax
• C. Pulmonary contusion
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flail chest. Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures, causing paradoxical chest movement where the injured part moves inward during inspiration and outward during expiration, interfering with ventilation. Choice B, Hemothorax, involves blood in the pleural cavity and does not typically cause paradoxical chest movement. Choice C, Pulmonary contusion, is a bruise to the lung tissue and does not present with paradoxical chest movement. Choice D, Pneumothorax, is the presence of air in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse, but it does not demonstrate paradoxical chest movement like in flail chest.

3. What are the manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

• A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
• B. Severe nausea and vomiting
• C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
• D. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) include restlessness, confusion, and irritability. These symptoms are a result of the brain being under pressure inside the skull. Severe nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with increased intracranial pressure in children. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure; instead, hypertension and bradycardia may be seen in Cushing's reflex, which is a late sign of increased IICP. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response (Choice D) are also not primary manifestations of increased intracranial pressure, although altered pupil response, like a non-reactive or dilated pupil, can be seen in some cases.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?

• A. Encourage a high-protein diet
• B. Increase the client's fluid intake
• C. Administer diuretics
• D. Weigh the client twice a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering diuretics is a crucial intervention for a client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as it helps reduce edema by increasing urine output and managing symptoms of glomerulonephritis. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended in this case because it can put additional stress on the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may worsen edema in these clients. Weighing the client twice a week (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid balance but is not as immediate and directly beneficial as administering diuretics.

5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Inspect the pin site every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the client's skin under the halo vest
• C. Ensure two personnel hold the halo device when repositioning the client
• D. Apply powder to the client's skin under the vest to decrease itching

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because while inspecting the pin site is important, it should be done more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as the halo device should be supported by the client's body weight, not personnel, when repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection.

Similar Questions