Nursing Elites

1. What is an escharotomy and why is it performed?

• A. A surgical incision made to improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. A procedure to remove dead tissue from a wound
• C. A procedure to remove excess fluid from the lungs
• D. A procedure to relieve pain from burns

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical procedure involving an incision through the eschar (dead tissue) to relieve pressure in burn injuries. It is performed to improve circulation to the affected area, prevent further damage, and restore blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because an escharotomy is not primarily focused on removing dead tissue but rather on relieving pressure. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a procedure related to pulmonary issues, not burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect because while pain relief may be a result of an escharotomy, it is not the primary purpose of the procedure.

2. What is the initial nursing action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Check the patient's urine output
• C. Check cardiac enzymes
• D. Obtain IV access

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority initial action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and reducing chest pain. Checking the patient's urine output (choice B) and cardiac enzymes (choice C) are important assessments but are not the first priority when managing acute chest pain. Obtaining IV access (choice D) is essential for administering medications and fluids, but administering sublingual nitroglycerin takes precedence in the initial management of chest pain in acute coronary syndrome.

3. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Monitor for muscle weakness
• B. Monitor for bradycardia
• C. Check deep tendon reflexes
• D. Monitor for hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common symptom of hypokalemia and should be closely monitored in affected patients. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and even paralysis. While bradycardia (slow heart rate) can be associated with severe hypokalemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is more specific to the condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes is not typically a primary monitoring parameter for hypokalemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to hypokalemia, as hypokalemia is primarily associated with potassium levels in the blood.

4. What is the priority action for a patient with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Check the patient's cardiac enzymes
• C. Administer aspirin
• D. Obtain IV access

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This medication helps dilate the blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving blood flow to the heart muscle, which is crucial in the management of acute coronary syndrome. Checking cardiac enzymes (choice B) is important for diagnosing a heart attack but is not the priority over providing immediate relief to the patient's chest pain. Administering aspirin (choice C) is also important in acute coronary syndrome to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the priority action for immediate pain relief. Obtaining IV access (choice D) is necessary for administering medications or fluids; however, in this scenario, providing sublingual nitroglycerin for prompt pain relief takes precedence.

5. What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.

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