Nursing Elites

1. What is an escharotomy and why is it performed?

• A. A surgical incision made to improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. A procedure to remove dead tissue from a wound
• C. A procedure to remove excess fluid from the lungs
• D. A procedure to relieve pain from burns

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical procedure involving an incision through the eschar (dead tissue) to relieve pressure in burn injuries. It is performed to improve circulation to the affected area, prevent further damage, and restore blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because an escharotomy is not primarily focused on removing dead tissue but rather on relieving pressure. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a procedure related to pulmonary issues, not burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect because while pain relief may be a result of an escharotomy, it is not the primary purpose of the procedure.

2. What are the expected ECG changes in hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST elevation
• C. Wide QRS complex
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are the most common ECG change seen in patients with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. This results in T wave flattening or inversion. ST elevation is typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Wide QRS complex is more associated with hyperkalemia than hypokalemia. Tall T waves are often seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

3. While administering a blood transfusion, a nurse suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Maintain IV access
• B. Obtain the client's vital signs
• C. Contact the provider
• D. Stop the transfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when suspecting an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion is to stop the transfusion immediately. Stopping the transfusion helps prevent further harm to the client. Maintaining IV access and obtaining vital signs are important steps but come after stopping the transfusion in this situation. Contacting the provider can be done after ensuring the client's safety by stopping the transfusion.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate to prevent transmission of the disease?

• A. Contact precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Droplet precautions
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets measuring less than 5 microns, which can remain airborne for extended periods. The nurse should place a client who has TB under airborne precautions to prevent the spread of microbes. Choice A, contact precautions, are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for diseases spread by larger droplets. Choice D, protective environment, is used for immunocompromised clients to protect them from environmental pathogens.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 DM about hypoglycemia. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Exercise reduces the risk for hypoglycemia.
• B. I can skip my insulin when I don't eat.
• C. I can drink 4 oz of soda if my blood sugar is low.
• D. Diabetic pills don't cause hypoglycemia; only insulin does.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client can correct any development of hypoglycemia with a quick intake of glucose. The client should have 15 g carbohydrates on hand to treat hypoglycemic episodes, like 4 oz of regular soda.

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