ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What is an escharotomy and why is it performed?
- A. A surgical incision made to improve circulation in burn injuries
- B. A procedure to remove dead tissue from a wound
- C. A procedure to remove excess fluid from the lungs
- D. A procedure to relieve pain from burns
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical procedure involving an incision through the eschar (dead tissue) to relieve pressure in burn injuries. It is performed to improve circulation to the affected area, prevent further damage, and restore blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because an escharotomy is not primarily focused on removing dead tissue but rather on relieving pressure. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a procedure related to pulmonary issues, not burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect because while pain relief may be a result of an escharotomy, it is not the primary purpose of the procedure.
2. What is the purpose of an escharotomy?
- A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
- B. To reduce pain in the affected area
- C. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
- D. To prevent infection from spreading
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. This procedure helps prevent complications such as compartment syndrome by releasing the constricting eschar. Choice B is incorrect because while pain relief may be a secondary outcome of the procedure, the primary purpose is to address pressure and circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as an escharotomy specifically focuses on releasing pressure, not removing necrotic tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of an escharotomy is not to prevent infection but rather to address the immediate issues related to deep burn injuries.
3. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Inspect the pin site every 4 hours
- B. Monitor the client's skin under the halo vest
- C. Ensure two personnel hold the halo device when repositioning the client
- D. Apply powder to the client's skin under the vest to decrease itching
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because while inspecting the pin site is important, it should be done more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as the halo device should be supported by the client's body weight, not personnel, when repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection.
4. What is the first medication to administer to a patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction?
- A. Albuterol via nebulizer
- B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
- C. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-choice medication for wheezing due to its fast-acting bronchodilatory effect, which helps in relieving the symptoms quickly. Choice B, Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV, is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory effects and would be beneficial in reducing inflammation in allergic reactions but is not the first-line treatment for wheezing. Choice C, Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer, is a mast cell stabilizer used to prevent asthma attacks but is not the immediate treatment for wheezing during an allergic reaction. Choice D, Aminophylline 500 mg IV, is a bronchodilator but is not typically the initial medication of choice for wheezing in an allergic reaction.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has unstable angina. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Breath sounds
- B. Temperature
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Creatine kinase
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breath sounds. When caring for a client with unstable angina, changes in breath sounds could indicate left ventricular failure and pulmonary edema due to decreased cardiac output and reduced cardiac perfusion. Reporting any abnormalities in breath sounds promptly to the provider is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the immediate management of unstable angina. Temperature, blood pressure, and creatine kinase levels are important parameters to monitor but are not the priority in this situation.
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