Nursing Elites

1. What adverse effect might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy?

• A. Seizures
• B. JVD and fatigue
• C. SOB and JVD
• D. S3 heart sound

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct adverse effect that might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy is the development of an S3 heart sound. This can result from decreased pumping ability following mastectomy and radiation treatment. Choice A, seizures, is incorrect as seizures are not a common adverse effect of radiation after a mastectomy. Choice B, JVD and fatigue, is incorrect as while fatigue can be a common side effect, JVD (Jugular Venous Distention) is not typically associated with radiation after a mastectomy. Choice C, SOB (Shortness of Breath) and JVD, is incorrect as while shortness of breath can occur, JVD is not a typical adverse effect of radiation post-mastectomy.

2. What is an escharotomy and why is it performed?

• A. A surgical incision made to improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. A procedure to remove dead tissue from a wound
• C. A procedure to remove excess fluid from the lungs
• D. A procedure to relieve pain from burns

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical procedure involving an incision through the eschar (dead tissue) to relieve pressure in burn injuries. It is performed to improve circulation to the affected area, prevent further damage, and restore blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because an escharotomy is not primarily focused on removing dead tissue but rather on relieving pressure. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a procedure related to pulmonary issues, not burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect because while pain relief may be a result of an escharotomy, it is not the primary purpose of the procedure.

3. What lab value should be prioritized for a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Serum albumin levels
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 should be prioritized for a patient with HIV. This value is crucial as it indicates severe immunocompromise in HIV-infected individuals. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count helps assess the status of the immune system and guides treatment decisions. Serum albumin levels (choice B) may reflect the patient's nutritional status and overall health but are not as specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice C) and hemoglobin levels (choice D) can be affected by various factors and are not as directly linked to HIV management as the CD4 T-cell count in this context.

4. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

5. A patient with a new diagnosis of diabetes insipidus is planning care. What should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Avoid alcohol
• B. Increase exercise to reduce stress
• C. Increase fluid intake
• D. Restrict sodium intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid alcohol. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination leads to fluid loss, so it is essential to avoid alcohol which can exacerbate dehydration. Choice B is incorrect as increasing exercise may not directly impact diabetes insipidus. Choice C is also incorrect because although increasing fluid intake may seem intuitive, it is not the primary concern in managing diabetes insipidus. Choice D is not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus; sodium restriction is more relevant in conditions like hypertension or heart failure.

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