a nurse is caring for a client who is to undergo a liver biopsy which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client following t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A client is to undergo a liver biopsy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client following the procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a liver biopsy, the nurse should instruct the client to lie on the right side. This position helps apply pressure to the biopsy site, promoting hemostasis and reducing the risk of bleeding. Lying on the left side may not provide adequate pressure to the site. Increasing fluid intake is generally beneficial to prevent dehydration and aid in the recovery process, whereas decreasing fluid intake could lead to dehydration and possible complications. Therefore, the correct instruction is to lie on the right side.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

3. What is the priority dietary modification for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, restricting phosphorus intake is crucial to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders, which are common in kidney disease. Choice B, increasing potassium intake, is not the priority and can be harmful as kidney disease often leads to hyperkalemia. Choice C, eating three large meals per day, is not recommended as smaller, frequent meals are usually better tolerated. Choice D, restricting protein intake to 1 g/kg/day, is important in later stages of kidney disease but is not the priority at the pre-dialysis stage.

4. What are the signs of compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of compartment syndrome include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment. Choice B, muscle weakness, and hyporeflexia are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Choice C, pins-and-needles sensation and swelling, are not specific signs of compartment syndrome. Choice D, severe swelling and tightness in the affected extremity, could be seen in compartment syndrome but are not the primary signs.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Fatigue.' Early manifestations of HIV infection often include symptoms like fatigue, fever, and rash, which are typical of viral infections. Stomatitis (choice A) refers to inflammation of the mouth and lips, which can occur in HIV but is not specific to early infection. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more commonly associated with later stages of HIV infection rather than early manifestations.

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