Nursing Elites

1. What describes a criterion used to diagnose diabetes?

• A. a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours
• B. a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms
• C. a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load is 400 mg/dL or higher
• D. a HbA1C higher than 5 percent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms is a diagnostic criterion for diabetes. This choice aligns with the typical clinical presentation of diabetes and is a key diagnostic indicator. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately reflect the established criteria for diagnosing diabetes, making them incorrect. Choice A pertains to a fasting plasma glucose level, Choice C involves a glucose challenge test, and Choice D refers to HbA1C levels, which are used for monitoring blood sugar control over time, not for diagnosing diabetes.

2. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the best answer?

• A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm
• B. Sperm cannot enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked
• C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked
• D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is nowhere for them to go

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Sperm can no longer reach the ova because the fallopian tubes are blocked.' Tubal ligation works by blocking the fallopian tubes, preventing sperm from reaching the egg for fertilization. Choice A is incorrect because prostaglandins are not released from the cut fallopian tubes to kill sperm. Choice B is incorrect as the cervical entrance being blocked does not relate to tubal ligation. Choice D is incorrect because tubal ligation does not affect the release of ova from the ovary.

3. After a vaginal examination, the nurse determines that the client’s fetus is in an occiput posterior position. The nurse would anticipate that the client will have:

• A. A precipitous birth
• B. Intense back pain
• C. Frequent leg cramps
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

4. Which of the following statements are true about iron?

• A. The iron needs of vegans are 20% higher, and the needs of endurance athletes are 10% lower.
• B. It is one of the most common nutrient deficiencies in the world.
• C. Its absorption is increased by Vitamin C and during pregnancy.
• D. Its absorption is increased by tannic acid and calcium in milk.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because iron absorption is indeed increased by Vitamin C and during pregnancy. The other choices are incorrect. Choice A is wrong as there are no universally accepted percentages for the iron needs of vegans and endurance athletes. Choice B is inaccurate as iron deficiency is actually one of the most common nutritional deficiencies worldwide. Choice D is incorrect because tannic acid and calcium in milk actually inhibit iron absorption rather than increasing it.

5. Muscle weakness due to wasting would most likely be evaluated by which test?

• A. recall of food intake
• B. skinfold thickness
• C. handgrip strength
• D. red blood cell levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Handgrip strength is a reliable test to assess muscle function and detect muscle weakness due to wasting. It is often used to identify conditions like sarcopenia in clinical settings. Options A, B, and D are not suitable for evaluating muscle weakness. Food intake recall does not directly measure muscle function, skinfold thickness assesses body fat but not muscle strength, and red blood cell levels are unrelated to muscle wasting.

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