ATI RN
Proctored Nutrition ATI
1. What describes a criterion used to diagnose diabetes?
- A. a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours
- B. a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms
- C. a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load is 400 mg/dL or higher
- D. a HbA1C higher than 5 percent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms is a diagnostic criterion for diabetes. This choice aligns with the typical clinical presentation of diabetes and is a key diagnostic indicator. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately reflect the established criteria for diagnosing diabetes, making them incorrect. Choice A pertains to a fasting plasma glucose level, Choice C involves a glucose challenge test, and Choice D refers to HbA1C levels, which are used for monitoring blood sugar control over time, not for diagnosing diabetes.
2. A client is being taught how to follow a low-purine diet for gout management. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?
- A. "I will need to limit the number of fruit servings each day."?
- B. "I should avoid eating liver and other organ meats."?
- C. "I can drink only white wine."?
- D. "I should choose red meat instead of poultry."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Organ meats like liver are high in purines, which can exacerbate gout symptoms. Choosing to avoid such foods is essential in following a low-purine diet. Option A is incorrect because fruits are generally low in purines and are not usually restricted in a low-purine diet. Option C is incorrect as white wine, just like other types of alcohol, should be consumed in moderation or avoided due to its purine content. Option D is incorrect because red meat, including beef and lamb, is high in purines and should be limited in a low-purine diet.
3. The following are appropriate nursing interventions during colostomy irrigation, EXCEPT:
- A. Increase the irrigating solution flow rate when abdominal cramps is felt
- B. Insert 2-4 inches of an adequately lubricated catheter to the stoma
- C. Position client in semi-Fowler
- D. Hang the solution 18 inches above the stoma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
4. Which strategy would most likely help alleviate some of the nausea that a 10-week pregnant woman experiences every morning, preventing her from eating breakfast?
- A. Increase intake of dairy products, including yogurt and ice cream
- B. Maintain an upright position while eating
- C. Opt for foods that are high in fiber
- D. Consume small, frequent meals when hunger strikes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Consume small, frequent meals when hunger strikes.' This strategy is ideal for managing morning sickness because it prevents the stomach from becoming too empty, which can exacerbate nausea. Option A may not be helpful because dairy products can sometimes worsen nausea. Option B is not the most effective solution as the sitting position does not directly impact nausea levels. Option C, while generally beneficial for digestion and overall health, does not specifically address the issue of pregnancy-related nausea.
5. Legally, Patients chart are:
- A. Owned by the government since it is a legal document
- B. Owned by the doctor in charge and should be kept from the administrator for whatever reason
- C. Owned by the hospital and should not be given to anyone who request it other than the doctor in charge
- D. Owned by the patient and should be given by the nurse to the client as requested
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
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