Nursing Elites

1. What describes a criterion used to diagnose diabetes?

• A. a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours
• B. a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms
• C. a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load is 400 mg/dL or higher
• D. a HbA1C higher than 5 percent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms is a diagnostic criterion for diabetes. This choice aligns with the typical clinical presentation of diabetes and is a key diagnostic indicator. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately reflect the established criteria for diagnosing diabetes, making them incorrect. Choice A pertains to a fasting plasma glucose level, Choice C involves a glucose challenge test, and Choice D refers to HbA1C levels, which are used for monitoring blood sugar control over time, not for diagnosing diabetes.

2. In conducting a cleansing enema, how does the nurse position the client?

• A. Right lateral position
• B. Left lateral position
• C. Right Sim's position
• D. Left Sim's position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In preparing a patient for a cleansing enema, the nurse typically positions the patient in the left lateral position. This position allows for the best flow of the solution due to the anatomical configuration of the colon. The right lateral position, right Sim's position, and left Sim's position are not typically used for this procedure. The rationale provided initially is incorrect as it pertains to lung expansion and postural drainage, which are not relevant to a cleansing enema procedure.

3. During the acute phase of a burn, the priority nursing intervention in caring for this client is:

• A. Prevention of infection
• B. Pain management
• C. Prevention of bleeding
• D. Fluid resuscitation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the acute phase of a burn, fluid resuscitation is the priority nursing intervention. This phase is characterized by fluid loss and the risk of hypovolemic shock. Administering fluids is crucial to maintain perfusion and prevent complications such as organ failure. While prevention of infection, pain management, and prevention of bleeding are important aspects of burn care, fluid resuscitation takes precedence in the acute phase to stabilize the client's condition and prevent further damage.

4. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely to cause bleeding disorders?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin E
• C. Vitamin K
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting as it plays a crucial role in the activation of clotting factors. Deficiency of Vitamin K can lead to impaired blood clotting, resulting in bleeding disorders. Vitamin A is more associated with vision and skin health, not blood clotting. Vitamin E is known for its antioxidant properties and role in immune function, not specifically related to bleeding disorders. Vitamin D plays a key role in calcium absorption and bone health, but it is not directly linked to blood clotting or bleeding disorders.

5. A client is being instructed by a nurse about foods that should be included in a low-fiber diet. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

• A. I can cut up carrots and celery sticks for my lunch.
• B. I will eat a bran muffin for my mid-morning snack.
• C. I will have oatmeal with skim milk for my breakfast.
• D. I should choose canned peaches for my fruit serving.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because canned peaches are lower in fiber compared to the other options. Carrots, celery sticks, bran muffins, and oatmeal are high-fiber choices, which are not suitable for a low-fiber diet. Choosing canned peaches aligns with the requirements of a low-fiber diet.

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