what are the signs of hypokalemia on an ecg

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. What is a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG?

A. Flattened T waves
B. ST elevation
C. Prominent U waves
D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. When potassium levels are low, it can lead to changes in the ECG, such as T wave flattening. This alteration is important to recognize as it indicates potential electrolyte imbalances. ST elevation (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Widened QRS complex (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperkalemia.

2. What dietary instructions should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
B. Increase protein intake to 1g/kg/day
C. Increase sodium intake
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders in patients with kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can burden the kidneys. Increasing sodium intake is usually discouraged due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention in kidney disease. Avoiding potassium-rich foods is more relevant in advanced kidney disease stages when potassium levels are high, not in pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease.

3. A client has a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA). What should the nurse teach?

A. Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime
B. Consume liquids between meals
C. Eat large meals to increase caloric intake
D. Avoid liquids to prevent aspiration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime. For a client with a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA), it is crucial to avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime to reduce reflux that can worsen symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because consuming liquids between meals is not specifically related to managing TIA. Choice C is incorrect as eating large meals may not be recommended, especially if the client needs to watch their caloric intake. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding liquids entirely can lead to dehydration and is not a standard recommendation for TIA management.

4. What is the priority action when the nurse administers insulin for a misread blood glucose reading?

A. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia
B. Monitor for hyperglycemia
C. Administer glucose IV
D. Document the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action when the nurse administers insulin for a misread blood glucose reading is to monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. Insulin administration based on a misread blood glucose could lead to hypoglycemia due to an unnecessary dose. Monitoring for signs of hypoglycemia is crucial for prompt intervention if blood glucose levels drop dangerously low. Option B, monitoring for hyperglycemia, is incorrect in this situation as the concern is over-treatment with insulin causing hypoglycemia. Option C, administering glucose IV, is only necessary if hypoglycemia occurs. Option D, documenting the incident, is important for reporting and learning purposes but is not the immediate priority when the focus is on patient safety and preventing complications.

5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

A. Inspect the pin site every 4 hours
B. Monitor the client's skin under the halo vest
C. Ensure two personnel hold the halo device when repositioning the client
D. Apply powder to the client's skin under the vest to decrease itching

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because while inspecting the pin site is important, it should be done more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as the halo device should be supported by the client's body weight, not personnel, when repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection.