ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What is the purpose of an escharotomy?
- A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
- B. To reduce pain in the affected area
- C. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
- D. To prevent infection from spreading
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. This procedure helps prevent complications such as compartment syndrome by releasing the constricting eschar. Choice B is incorrect because while pain relief may be a secondary outcome of the procedure, the primary purpose is to address pressure and circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as an escharotomy specifically focuses on releasing pressure, not removing necrotic tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of an escharotomy is not to prevent infection but rather to address the immediate issues related to deep burn injuries.
2. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Monitor for muscle weakness
- B. Monitor for bradycardia
- C. Check deep tendon reflexes
- D. Monitor for hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common symptom of hypokalemia and should be closely monitored in affected patients. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and even paralysis. While bradycardia (slow heart rate) can be associated with severe hypokalemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is more specific to the condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes is not typically a primary monitoring parameter for hypokalemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to hypokalemia, as hypokalemia is primarily associated with potassium levels in the blood.
3. What should be monitored in a patient with diabetes insipidus?
- A. Monitor urine specific gravity for values below 1.005
- B. Monitor for increased thirst
- C. Monitor serum albumin levels
- D. Monitor blood pressure closely
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with diabetes insipidus, monitoring urine specific gravity for values below 1.005 is crucial. Low urine specific gravity indicates excessive water loss, a key characteristic of diabetes insipidus. Monitoring for increased thirst (choice B) may be a symptom presented by the patient, but it does not directly reflect the condition's severity. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice C) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Monitoring blood pressure closely (choice D) is not a primary concern in diabetes insipidus unless severe dehydration leads to hypotension.
4. What is the priority nursing action when a patient with chest pain presents with possible acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain IV access
- C. Check the patient's cardiac enzymes
- D. Administer aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action when a patient with chest pain presents with possible acute coronary syndrome is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Sublingual nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reducing cardiac workload, and improving blood supply to the heart muscle, thus relieving pain and enhancing blood flow to the heart. While obtaining IV access is important for administering medications and fluids, it is not the priority over addressing pain and improving blood flow. Checking the patient's cardiac enzymes is crucial for diagnosis and ongoing management but not the immediate priority when the patient is in pain. Administering aspirin is also a vital intervention in acute coronary syndrome, but in this scenario, it is not the priority action compared to providing immediate pain relief and enhancing blood flow to the heart.
5. What are the expected findings in a patient experiencing hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on an ECG
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on an ECG. Hypokalemia is characterized by flattened T waves on an ECG, which is an early indicator of low potassium levels. Elevated ST segments (Choice B) are associated with conditions like myocardial infarction, not hypokalemia. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are typically seen in hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Bradycardia (Choice D) can be a manifestation of severe hypokalemia but is not as specific as flattened T waves on an ECG.
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