Nursing Elites

1. What is the purpose of an escharotomy?

• A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. To reduce pain in the affected area
• C. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
• D. To prevent infection from spreading

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. This procedure helps prevent complications such as compartment syndrome by releasing the constricting eschar. Choice B is incorrect because while pain relief may be a secondary outcome of the procedure, the primary purpose is to address pressure and circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as an escharotomy specifically focuses on releasing pressure, not removing necrotic tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of an escharotomy is not to prevent infection but rather to address the immediate issues related to deep burn injuries.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

3. What is the priority dietary modification for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day
• C. Eat three large meals per day
• D. Restrict protein intake to 1 g/kg/day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, restricting phosphorus intake is crucial to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders, which are common in kidney disease. Choice B, increasing potassium intake, is not the priority and can be harmful as kidney disease often leads to hyperkalemia. Choice C, eating three large meals per day, is not recommended as smaller, frequent meals are usually better tolerated. Choice D, restricting protein intake to 1 g/kg/day, is important in later stages of kidney disease but is not the priority at the pre-dialysis stage.

4. What are the expected findings in a patient with a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness
• C. Severe headache and vomiting
• D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. In a thrombotic stroke, a blood clot forms in an artery supplying blood to the brain, leading to reduced blood flow to a specific area of the brain. This results in a gradual onset of neurological deficits, such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, severe headache and vomiting, and loss of sensation in the affected limb are more commonly associated with other types of strokes or medical conditions, not specifically thrombotic strokes. Thrombotic strokes typically present with gradual symptoms due to the gradual blockage of blood flow, leading to a progressive neurological deficit.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has unstable angina. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Breath sounds
• B. Temperature
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Creatine kinase

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breath sounds. When caring for a client with unstable angina, changes in breath sounds could indicate left ventricular failure and pulmonary edema due to decreased cardiac output and reduced cardiac perfusion. Reporting any abnormalities in breath sounds promptly to the provider is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the immediate management of unstable angina. Temperature, blood pressure, and creatine kinase levels are important parameters to monitor but are not the priority in this situation.

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