ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What is the purpose of an escharotomy?
- A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
- B. To reduce pain in the affected area
- C. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
- D. To prevent infection from spreading
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. This procedure helps prevent complications such as compartment syndrome by releasing the constricting eschar. Choice B is incorrect because while pain relief may be a secondary outcome of the procedure, the primary purpose is to address pressure and circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as an escharotomy specifically focuses on releasing pressure, not removing necrotic tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of an escharotomy is not to prevent infection but rather to address the immediate issues related to deep burn injuries.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- B. Positive Chvostek's sign
- C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- D. Dry mucous membranes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected deep tendon reflexes occur with hyponatremia. Other manifestations of hyponatremia include headache, confusion, lethargy, fatigue, seizures, and muscle weakness. Positive Chvostek's sign is associated with hypocalcemia, hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically related to hyponatremia, and dry mucous membranes are more commonly seen with dehydration.
3. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.
4. A patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction needs immediate treatment. Which medication should be administered first?
- A. Albuterol via nebulizer
- B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
- C. Aminophylline IV
- D. Methylprednisolone IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is a rapid-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing by opening up the airways. During an allergic reaction causing wheezing, prompt relief is crucial, making Albuterol the first-line treatment. Choice B, Cromolyn via nebulizer, is used more for preventing asthma symptoms rather than providing immediate relief. Choice C, Aminophylline IV, is a bronchodilator with a slower onset of action compared to Albuterol. Choice D, Methylprednisolone IV, is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and is not the first-line treatment for acute wheezing in an allergic reaction.
5. What is the first medication to give for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?
- A. Albuterol via nebulizer
- B. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
- C. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol is the first-line medication for treating wheezing due to an allergic reaction. Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that helps relieve bronchospasm quickly. Cromolyn is more commonly used for the prevention of asthma symptoms rather than for acute treatment. Methylprednisolone and aminophylline are not the first-line medications for acute wheezing due to an allergic reaction.
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