Nursing Elites

1. What is the purpose of an escharotomy?

• A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. To reduce pain in the affected area
• C. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
• D. To prevent infection from spreading

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. This procedure helps prevent complications such as compartment syndrome by releasing the constricting eschar. Choice B is incorrect because while pain relief may be a secondary outcome of the procedure, the primary purpose is to address pressure and circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as an escharotomy specifically focuses on releasing pressure, not removing necrotic tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of an escharotomy is not to prevent infection but rather to address the immediate issues related to deep burn injuries.

2. A nurse misreads a glucose level and administers insulin for a blood glucose of 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL. What is the priority intervention?

• A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• B. Monitor for hyperkalemia
• C. Administer glucose IV
• D. Document the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. In this scenario, the nurse administered insulin based on a misread glucose level, which could lead to hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin action lowering blood glucose levels. Monitoring for hypoglycemia allows for prompt recognition and intervention if blood glucose levels drop significantly. Choice B, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is incorrect as administering insulin would not cause hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering glucose IV, is not appropriate at this time since the patient's blood glucose level is already elevated. Choice D, documenting the incident, is important but not the priority at this moment when patient safety is at risk due to potential hypoglycemia.

3. What should be the priority action when a patient is admitted with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Obtain IV access
• C. Check cardiac enzymes
• D. Administer aspirin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This is the priority action in treating chest pain associated with acute coronary syndrome as it helps to dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and reduce cardiac tissue damage. Administering nitroglycerin is crucial in managing the symptoms and potential complications of acute coronary syndrome. Obtaining IV access (Choice B) is important for administering medications and fluids but does not address the immediate symptom of chest pain. Checking cardiac enzymes (Choice C) and administering aspirin (Choice D) are essential steps in the management of acute coronary syndrome, but they should follow the administration of nitroglycerin to address the immediate symptom and improve blood flow to the heart.

4. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?

• A. Synchronized cardioversion
• B. Defibrillation
• C. Pacing
• D. Medication administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Synchronized cardioversion. In ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention. Synchronized cardioversion is used to treat tachyarrhythmias where there is a pulse present. Defibrillation (choice B) is used in emergencies for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (choice C) is more suitable for bradycardias or certain conduction abnormalities. Medication administration (choice D) may be used in stable cases or as an adjunct to other treatments, but synchronized cardioversion is the primary intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible complication of TPN administration?

• A. Pitting edema of bilateral lower extremities
• B. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants
• C. Weight is the same as the day before
• D. Bilateral posterior lung sounds are diminished

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pitting edema of bilateral lower extremities. Pitting edema can indicate fluid overload, which is a potential complication of TPN administration. Choice B, hypoactive bowel sounds, is more indicative of a gastrointestinal issue rather than a complication of TPN. Choice C, weight remaining the same, is expected to remain stable with proper TPN administration. Choice D, diminished lung sounds, is not directly related to TPN administration and is more suggestive of a respiratory issue.

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