what should a nurse monitor for in a patient with diabetes insipidus

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What should be monitored in a patient with diabetes insipidus?

A. Monitor urine specific gravity for values below 1.005
B. Monitor for increased thirst
C. Monitor serum albumin levels
D. Monitor blood pressure closely

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with diabetes insipidus, monitoring urine specific gravity for values below 1.005 is crucial. Low urine specific gravity indicates excessive water loss, a key characteristic of diabetes insipidus. Monitoring for increased thirst (choice B) may be a symptom presented by the patient, but it does not directly reflect the condition's severity. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice C) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Monitoring blood pressure closely (choice D) is not a primary concern in diabetes insipidus unless severe dehydration leads to hypotension.

2. What are the expected manifestations of a thrombotic stroke?

A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
B. Loss of sensation in the affected extremity
C. Sudden loss of consciousness
D. Seizures and convulsions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. Thrombotic strokes are caused by a clot forming in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to a gradual onset of symptoms due to impaired blood flow to specific brain regions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loss of sensation, sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, and convulsions are not typically associated with thrombotic strokes. In a thrombotic stroke, the symptoms develop slowly over time, often over minutes to hours, and include manifestations such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body, along with other symptoms related to the affected brain area.

3. A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. It delivers a preset amount of inspiratory pressure throughout the breathing cycle
B. It has a continuous adjustment feature that changes the airway pressure throughout the cycle
C. It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle
D. It delivers positive pressure at the end of each breath

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a CPAP device delivers a preset amount of positive airway pressure continuously throughout all inspiration and expiration cycles. Choice A is incorrect because CPAP does not deliver inspiratory pressure at the beginning of each breath; it provides continuous positive pressure. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP typically delivers a constant pressure rather than having a feature that changes pressure throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver positive pressure specifically at the end of each breath; it maintains a consistent pressure throughout the breathing cycle.

4. What medication should be administered first for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

A. Albuterol via nebulizer
B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
C. Methylprednisolone IV
D. Aminophylline IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction because it quickly opens the airways by relaxing the muscles around the airways. Cromolyn (choice B) is used more for prevention rather than immediate relief of symptoms. Methylprednisolone (choice C) and Aminophylline (choice D) are not the first-line treatments for acute wheezing due to an allergic reaction.

5. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Hemoglobin levels
C. Serum albumin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.