Nursing Elites

1. What should be monitored in a patient with diabetes insipidus?

• A. Monitor urine specific gravity for values below 1.005
• B. Monitor for increased thirst
• C. Monitor serum albumin levels
• D. Monitor blood pressure closely

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with diabetes insipidus, monitoring urine specific gravity for values below 1.005 is crucial. Low urine specific gravity indicates excessive water loss, a key characteristic of diabetes insipidus. Monitoring for increased thirst (choice B) may be a symptom presented by the patient, but it does not directly reflect the condition's severity. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice C) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Monitoring blood pressure closely (choice D) is not a primary concern in diabetes insipidus unless severe dehydration leads to hypotension.

2. What recommendations should the nurse provide to a patient diagnosed with GERD?

• A. Avoid items like mint that increase gastric acid secretion
• B. Eat small, frequent meals
• C. Avoid eating 1 hour before bedtime
• D. Avoid black and red pepper

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid items like mint that increase gastric acid secretion.' Mint can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to increased gastric acid secretion and worsening GERD symptoms. Choice B is a good recommendation for GERD management as it helps prevent excessive stomach distension. Choice C is also a recommended practice to avoid reflux during sleep. Choice D, avoiding black and red pepper, is not directly linked to exacerbating GERD symptoms, so it is not the most relevant recommendation for a patient diagnosed with GERD.

3. A client is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) and a nurse is providing teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should not wash my hair prior to the procedure.
• B. I will receive a sedative 1 hour before the procedure.
• C. I should avoid eating prior to the procedure.
• D. I will be exposed to flashes of light during the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that flashes of light or pictures are often used during the procedure to assess the brain's response to stimuli. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing hair, receiving a sedative, and avoiding eating are not directly related to the EEG procedure.

4. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Your provider will use a stool sample obtained during a digital rectal examination to perform the test.
• B. Your provider will recommend a stimulant laxative before the test to empty the bowel.
• C. You should start annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at the age of 40.
• D. You should avoid corticosteroids before the test.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Lidocaine
• B. Adenosine
• C. Atropine
• D. Verapamil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

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