Nursing Elites

1. A patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse needs electrical intervention. What is the appropriate action?

• A. Defibrillation
• B. Synchronized cardioversion
• C. Pacing
• D. Medication administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse, the appropriate action is synchronized cardioversion. Defibrillation is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing is typically used for bradycardias. Medication administration may be considered in stable ventricular tachycardia cases but electrical intervention is preferred for immediate correction in this scenario.

2. What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Monitor for muscle weakness
• B. Check deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
• C. Monitor for seizures
• D. Monitor for bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for muscle weakness in a patient with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Checking deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Seizures (Choice C) are more commonly associated with low calcium levels rather than low potassium levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is a symptom of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia.

3. What medication should be given first to a patient experiencing wheezing and coughing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer
• B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
• C. Aminophylline IV
• D. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing and coughing by opening up the airways, making it the first-line treatment for allergic reactions presenting with these symptoms. Cromolyn and aminophylline are not typically used as first-line treatments for acute allergic reactions with wheezing and coughing. Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, may be beneficial for inflammation in the setting of an allergic reaction but is not the initial medication of choice to address wheezing and coughing.

4. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Yogurt
• B. Apples
• C. Raisins
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.

5. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Your provider will use a stool sample obtained during a digital rectal examination to perform the test.
• B. Your provider will recommend a stimulant laxative before the test to empty the bowel.
• C. You should start annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at the age of 40.
• D. You should avoid corticosteroids before the test.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.

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