Nursing Elites

1. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

2. What ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST depression
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Elevated ST segments

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.

3. What is the appropriate electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse?

• A. Defibrillation
• B. Synchronized cardioversion
• C. Pacing
• D. Medication administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is the correct electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse. This procedure delivers a synchronized electrical shock to the heart during a specific phase of the cardiac cycle, aiming to restore the heart's normal rhythm. Defibrillation (choice A) is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (choice C) is typically used for bradycardias or certain types of heart blocks. Medication administration (choice D) may be used in some cases, but in the scenario of ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred intervention.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate to prevent transmission of the disease?

• A. Contact precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Droplet precautions
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets measuring less than 5 microns, which can remain airborne for extended periods. The nurse should place a client who has TB under airborne precautions to prevent the spread of microbes. Choice A, contact precautions, are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for diseases spread by larger droplets. Choice D, protective environment, is used for immunocompromised clients to protect them from environmental pathogens.

5. What dietary recommendations should be provided to a patient with GERD?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Eat large meals before bed
• C. Consume liquids with meals
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. These types of foods can trigger acid reflux and worsen GERD symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as eating large meals before bed can increase the likelihood of acid reflux due to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice C is also incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can cause distension in the stomach, potentially leading to reflux. Choice D is not directly related to GERD, as foods high in potassium are generally healthy and not specifically problematic for GERD patients.

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