Nursing Elites

1. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

2. What teaching should be provided to a patient following an escharotomy for burn injuries?

• A. Monitor for infection
• B. Restrict fluid intake
• C. Avoid physical activity
• D. Limit phosphorus to 1,500 mg/day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following an escharotomy for burn injuries, patients should be taught to monitor for infection and care for the incision site. Choice A is the correct answer because infection is a common risk after a procedure involving incisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Restricting fluid intake is not typically advised after an escharotomy; avoiding physical activity may vary depending on the individual's condition and should be guided by healthcare providers; and limiting phosphorus to 1,500 mg/day is not directly related to post-escharotomy care.

3. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Monitor for muscle weakness
• B. Monitor for bradycardia
• C. Check deep tendon reflexes
• D. Monitor for hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common symptom of hypokalemia and should be closely monitored in affected patients. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and even paralysis. While bradycardia (slow heart rate) can be associated with severe hypokalemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is more specific to the condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes is not typically a primary monitoring parameter for hypokalemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to hypokalemia, as hypokalemia is primarily associated with potassium levels in the blood.

4. What should a healthcare professional monitor in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?

• A. Monitor blood glucose levels
• B. Monitor for respiratory distress
• C. Monitor for muscle weakness
• D. Monitor for hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia. Insulin can lower blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia, which can be harmful if not promptly recognized and managed. Checking blood glucose levels allows for early detection of low blood sugar levels, enabling timely interventions to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to monitoring for hypoglycemia in patients receiving insulin.

5. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
• B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
• C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
• D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.

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