ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Prominent U waves
- C. Elevated ST segments
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.
2. What are the expected symptoms in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
- B. Sudden loss of consciousness
- C. Seizures and convulsions
- D. Severe headache and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' Thrombotic strokes typically result in a gradual onset of symptoms due to a blockage in a blood vessel in the brain, leading to a slow progression of neurological deficits. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, convulsions, severe headache, and vomiting are more commonly associated with other types of strokes or medical conditions, such as hemorrhagic strokes, epilepsy, or migraines.
3. What is the initial action for treating chest pain in acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Administer aspirin
- C. Check cardiac enzymes
- D. Obtain IV access
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial action for treating chest pain in acute coronary syndrome is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reducing the workload on the heart and improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Administering aspirin can also be beneficial, but the priority is to address chest pain promptly. Checking cardiac enzymes and obtaining IV access are important steps but are not the initial actions needed to alleviate chest pain in acute coronary syndrome.
4. A patient with a new diagnosis of diabetes insipidus is planning care. What should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Avoid alcohol
- B. Increase exercise to reduce stress
- C. Increase fluid intake
- D. Restrict sodium intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid alcohol. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination leads to fluid loss, so it is essential to avoid alcohol which can exacerbate dehydration. Choice B is incorrect as increasing exercise may not directly impact diabetes insipidus. Choice C is also incorrect because although increasing fluid intake may seem intuitive, it is not the primary concern in managing diabetes insipidus. Choice D is not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus; sodium restriction is more relevant in conditions like hypertension or heart failure.
5. What should a healthcare professional monitor in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor for respiratory distress
- C. Monitor for muscle weakness
- D. Monitor for hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia. Insulin can lower blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia, which can be harmful if not promptly recognized and managed. Checking blood glucose levels allows for early detection of low blood sugar levels, enabling timely interventions to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to monitoring for hypoglycemia in patients receiving insulin.
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