Nursing Elites

1. What are the manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

• A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
• B. Severe nausea and vomiting
• C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
• D. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) include restlessness, confusion, and irritability. These symptoms are a result of the brain being under pressure inside the skull. Severe nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with increased intracranial pressure in children. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure; instead, hypertension and bradycardia may be seen in Cushing's reflex, which is a late sign of increased IICP. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response (Choice D) are also not primary manifestations of increased intracranial pressure, although altered pupil response, like a non-reactive or dilated pupil, can be seen in some cases.

2. What dietary modifications are recommended for a patient with pre-dialysis kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase sodium intake to 3 g/day
• C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
• D. Eat three large meals per day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Patients with pre-dialysis kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to prevent further kidney damage. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended in pre-dialysis kidney disease. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation in advanced kidney disease, not pre-dialysis. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day is not a specific dietary modification for pre-dialysis kidney disease.

3. What are the expected signs in a patient with compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
• B. Fever and infection
• C. Localized redness and swelling
• D. Loss of sensation in the affected area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the classic signs include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These signs indicate compromised circulation and neurovascular function in the affected compartment. Fever and infection (Choice B) are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling (Choice C) can be seen in other conditions like cellulitis but are not specific to compartment syndrome. Loss of sensation in the affected area (Choice D) may occur in some cases but is not as specific or consistent as unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness in diagnosing compartment syndrome.

4. What are the expected symptoms of a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness
• C. Severe headache and confusion
• D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' In a thrombotic stroke, a clot blocks a cerebral artery, leading to a gradual onset of symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choice B, 'Sudden loss of consciousness,' is more characteristic of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice C, 'Severe headache and confusion,' are often associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than thrombotic stroke. Choice D, 'Loss of sensation in the affected limb,' is not a typical symptom pattern for a thrombotic stroke, which usually presents with motor deficits.

5. What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.

Similar Questions