Nursing Elites

1. What are the manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

• A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
• B. Severe nausea and vomiting
• C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
• D. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) include restlessness, confusion, and irritability. These symptoms are a result of the brain being under pressure inside the skull. Severe nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with increased intracranial pressure in children. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure; instead, hypertension and bradycardia may be seen in Cushing's reflex, which is a late sign of increased IICP. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response (Choice D) are also not primary manifestations of increased intracranial pressure, although altered pupil response, like a non-reactive or dilated pupil, can be seen in some cases.

2. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase protein intake to 1.5 g/kg/day
• C. Restrict sodium intake to 1 g/day
• D. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excess phosphorus can lead to complications such as bone and heart issues in these patients. Increasing protein intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended as it can lead to increased waste production that the kidneys may struggle to eliminate. Restricting sodium intake (Choice C) is important for managing blood pressure, but the recommendation is usually higher than 1 g/day. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not typically advised in patients with kidney disease, as they often need to limit potassium due to impaired kidney function.

3. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Inspect the pin site every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the client's skin under the halo vest
• C. Ensure two personnel hold the halo device when repositioning the client
• D. Apply powder to the client's skin under the vest to decrease itching

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because while inspecting the pin site is important, it should be done more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as the halo device should be supported by the client's body weight, not personnel, when repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection.

4. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Monitor for muscle weakness
• B. Monitor for bradycardia
• C. Check deep tendon reflexes
• D. Monitor for hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common symptom of hypokalemia and should be closely monitored in affected patients. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and even paralysis. While bradycardia (slow heart rate) can be associated with severe hypokalemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is more specific to the condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes is not typically a primary monitoring parameter for hypokalemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to hypokalemia, as hypokalemia is primarily associated with potassium levels in the blood.

5. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. ST elevation
• D. Wide QRS complexes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.

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