Nursing Elites

1. The purpose of the health history is to identify health-related considerations and medications that may cause nutritional risk. Many medications, such as prednisone, have drug-nutrient interactions that can influence nutrient needs.

• A. Both statements are true
• B. Both statements are false
• C. The first statement is true; the second is false
• D. The first statement is false; the second is true

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Both statements are true. The health history aims to uncover health-related factors that could pose nutritional risks, including medications like prednisone that may have interactions affecting nutrient requirements. Choice B is incorrect as both statements are accurate, emphasizing the significance of health history in assessing nutritional concerns.

2. What describes a criterion used to diagnose diabetes?

• A. a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours
• B. a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms
• C. a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load is 400 mg/dL or higher
• D. a HbA1C higher than 5 percent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms is a diagnostic criterion for diabetes. This choice aligns with the typical clinical presentation of diabetes and is a key diagnostic indicator. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately reflect the established criteria for diagnosing diabetes, making them incorrect. Choice A pertains to a fasting plasma glucose level, Choice C involves a glucose challenge test, and Choice D refers to HbA1C levels, which are used for monitoring blood sugar control over time, not for diagnosing diabetes.

3. As a nurse, you can help improve the effectiveness of communication among healthcare givers by:

• A. Use of reminders of ‘what to do’
• B. Using standardized list of abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols
• C. One-on-one oral endorsement
• D. Text messaging and e-mail

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

4. A nurse is teaching an in-service about manifestations of hypoglycemia to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Blurred vision
• B. Vomiting
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a common symptom of hypoglycemia and should be included in the teaching. Other manifestations like vomiting, Kussmaul respirations, and bradycardia are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Vomiting is more commonly seen in conditions like food poisoning or gastrointestinal issues. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid respirations seen in metabolic acidosis, not hypoglycemia. Bradycardia is usually not a manifestation of hypoglycemia; tachycardia is more commonly associated with low blood sugar levels.

5. What is the most likely complication for a client receiving TPN who suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis?

• A. Fluid volume overload
• B. Sepsis
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypoglycemia. When a client receiving TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis, it is indicative of hypoglycemia. TPN provides a high concentration of glucose, and if it is abruptly stopped or the infusion rate is reduced, it can lead to hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the symptoms described in the scenario. Fluid volume overload typically presents with edema and hypertension, sepsis with fever and increased heart rate, and hyperglycemia with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision.

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