ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023
1. The purpose of the health history is to identify health-related considerations and medications that may cause nutritional risk. Many medications, such as prednisone, have drug-nutrient interactions that can influence nutrient needs.
- A. Both statements are true
- B. Both statements are false
- C. The first statement is true; the second is false
- D. The first statement is false; the second is true
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Both statements are true. The health history aims to uncover health-related factors that could pose nutritional risks, including medications like prednisone that may have interactions affecting nutrient requirements. Choice B is incorrect as both statements are accurate, emphasizing the significance of health history in assessing nutritional concerns.
2. Which nutrient has the highest satiety value?
- A. Complex carbohydrates
- B. High-quality protein
- C. Low-quality protein
- D. Fat
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fat has the highest satiety value among the listed nutrients. It slows down digestion, stays in the stomach longer, and provides a sustained release of energy, leading to increased feelings of fullness and satisfaction. Complex carbohydrates can also contribute to satiety, but fat generally has a stronger effect. High-quality protein is important for satiety as well, but it is generally not as filling as fat. Low-quality protein does not have as significant satiating effects as high-quality protein or fat.
3. Which statement indicates understanding of a low-fiber diet?
- A. I can cut up carrots and celery sticks for my lunch.
- B. I will eat a bran muffin for my mid-morning snack.
- C. I will have oatmeal with skim milk for my breakfast.
- D. I should choose canned peaches for my fruit serving.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because canned peaches are low in fiber compared to the other options provided. Option A contains high-fiber vegetables (carrots and celery), option B includes a bran muffin which is fiber-rich, and option C involves oatmeal which is also a good source of fiber. Therefore, choosing canned peaches aligns with a low-fiber diet.
4. What is the approximate energy value of alcohol?
- A. 3 kcal/g
- B. 7 kcal/g
- C. 10 kcal/g
- D. 25 kcal/g
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 kcal/g. Alcohol provides approximately 7 kilocalories per gram, making it a significant source of energy or 'empty calories' in the diet that do not contain any nutrients. 'Empty calories' refer to the calorie content without the presence of essential nutrients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The energy values of 3 kcal/g, 10 kcal/g, and 25 kcal/g are not accurate for alcohol; instead, they may pertain to other nutrients such as carbohydrates (approximately 4 kcal/g), fats (approximately 9 kcal/g), and oils (approximately 9 kcal/g).
5. During the Emergent phase of a burn, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance in a burned client is:
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the Emergent phase of burns, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance is Hypokalemia. This is due to the shift of potassium from the intracellular space to the extracellular space, leading to low potassium levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Hyperkalemia, Hypernatremia, and Hyponatremia are not typically associated with the Emergent phase of burns and do not pose the same level of risk as Hypokalemia in this context.
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