ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023
1. The purpose of the health history is to identify health-related considerations and medications that may cause nutritional risk. Many medications, such as prednisone, have drug-nutrient interactions that can influence nutrient needs.
- A. Both statements are true
- B. Both statements are false
- C. The first statement is true; the second is false
- D. The first statement is false; the second is true
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Both statements are true. The health history aims to uncover health-related factors that could pose nutritional risks, including medications like prednisone that may have interactions affecting nutrient requirements. Choice B is incorrect as both statements are accurate, emphasizing the significance of health history in assessing nutritional concerns.
2. If a child has two or more pink signs, you would classify the child as having:
- A. No disease
- B. Mild form of disease
- C. Urgent Referral
- D. Very severe disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.
3. What is the primary food safety concern for a patient undergoing chemotherapy?
- A. Possible food allergy reactions
- B. Possible food-drug interactions
- C. Possible pesticide residue
- D. Potential risk of foodborne illness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potential risk of foodborne illness. Patients undergoing chemotherapy have compromised immune systems, making them more susceptible to foodborne illnesses. Chemotherapy can reduce the count of white blood cells, which impairs the body's ability to fight off infections from bacteria or other pathogens that might be present in food. Therefore, the prevention of foodborne illnesses is a critical concern for these patients. Choices A, B, and C, while they represent valid concerns for food safety in general, are not the primary concern for patients undergoing chemotherapy. These patients are at a heightened risk of experiencing severe complications from foodborne illnesses, making it a more significant concern than potential food allergies, food-drug interactions, or pesticide residues.
4. When is Prevident indicated?
- A. High caries risk
- B. Crown and bridge work
- C. Orthodontic decalcification
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.
5. Each statement is true of water-soluble vitamins, except one. Which is it?
- A. Act as coenzymes
- B. Deficiencies develop rapidly
- C. Daily intake is necessary
- D. Absorbed in the jejunum
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Water-soluble vitamins do not develop deficiencies rapidly because the body does not store them for long periods. They must be obtained through food constantly. Choice A is correct because water-soluble vitamins often act as coenzymes in various metabolic reactions. Choice C is correct as daily intake of water-soluble vitamins is necessary since they are not stored in the body. Choice D is incorrect as water-soluble vitamins are absorbed primarily in the small intestine, particularly in the duodenum and ileum, not the jejunum.
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