Nursing Elites

1. Which condition is most closely associated with a high rate of gastroesophageal reflux disease?

• A. Pregnancy
• B. Anorexia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pregnancy is the correct answer as it is most closely associated with a high rate of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). During pregnancy, the growing fetus exerts pressure on the stomach, leading to the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, causing GERD. This physiological change is a common occurrence in pregnant individuals. Conversely, anorexia, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus are not typically linked to a high rate of GERD. While these conditions have their own effects on the body, they do not directly contribute to the mechanisms that cause GERD, unlike the physical changes associated with pregnancy. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

2. What physiological role does phosphorus play in the body?

• A. Blood clotting, transmission of nerve impulses, muscle contraction, and relaxation
• B. Calcium homeostasis, structural integrity of heart muscle
• C. No known metabolic function, caries-preventing properties
• D. ATP energy release; metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, proteins; regulates acid-base balance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Phosphorus plays a crucial role in ATP energy release, the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins, and regulation of acid-base balance. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Phosphorus is not directly involved in blood clotting, transmission of nerve impulses, muscle contraction, or calcium homeostasis. It also has known metabolic functions and is not associated with caries prevention.

3. The rationales for using a prostaglandin gel for a client prior to the induction of labor is to:

• A. Soften and efface the cervix
• B. Numb cervical pain receptors
• C. Prevent cervical lacerations
• D. Stimulate uterine contractions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. A nurse is teaching an in-service about manifestations of hypoglycemia to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Blurred vision
• B. Vomiting
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a common symptom of hypoglycemia and should be included in the teaching. Other manifestations like vomiting, Kussmaul respirations, and bradycardia are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Vomiting is more commonly seen in conditions like food poisoning or gastrointestinal issues. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid respirations seen in metabolic acidosis, not hypoglycemia. Bradycardia is usually not a manifestation of hypoglycemia; tachycardia is more commonly associated with low blood sugar levels.

5. Which is NOT a prudent recommendation for a menopausal patient?

• A. Supplement calcium and vitamin D slightly beyond upper intake level
• B. Encourage lean protein and regular exercise
• C. Avoid alcohol if xerostomia is present
• D. Consumption of 90 mg daily of isoflavones in soy products helps to increase bone mass

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excessive supplementation of calcium and vitamin D beyond the upper intake level is not recommended unless under medical supervision, as it can cause adverse health effects.

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