ATI RN
Human Growth and Development Final Exam
1. Which state of arousal is considered the most fleeting?
- A. Regular sleep
- B. REM sleep
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Quiet alertness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Quiet alertness is indeed the most fleeting state of arousal. This state is characterized by a newborn infant being awake, calm, and attentive, but it is short-lived and transitions quickly to other states of arousal. Regular sleep, REM sleep, and drowsiness are not considered as brief and transitional as quiet alertness in newborn infants.
2. Small-for-date infants __________ than preterm infants.
- A. catch fewer infections during the first year
- B. are less likely to die during the first year
- C. more often show evidence of brain damage
- D. have higher intelligence tests by middle childhood
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Small-for-date infants more often show evidence of brain damage than preterm infants. This can be attributed to factors such as intrauterine growth restriction and poor nutrition during pregnancy, which can affect the development of the baby's brain. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no evidence to support that small-for-date infants catch fewer infections, are less likely to die, or have higher intelligence tests compared to preterm infants.
3. Nine-month-old Avery can retrieve his ball when his mother hides it under a blanket. Avery has begun to master __________.
- A. the tertiary circular reaction
- B. reflexive schemes
- C. object permanence
- D. deferred imitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Avery demonstrating the ability to retrieve his ball hidden under a blanket indicates that he has started to understand object permanence. Object permanence is the concept that objects continue to exist even when they are out of sight. This milestone typically occurs around 8-12 months of age. The other choices are incorrect. Option A, the tertiary circular reaction, is related to Piaget's theory of sensorimotor development but does not specifically address object permanence. Reflexive schemes (Option B) refer to simple, reflex-like behaviors and are not directly linked to object permanence. Deferred imitation (Option D) involves the ability to imitate actions observed at an earlier time, which is a different developmental milestone compared to object permanence.
4. How does physical activity impact mental health?
- A. Reduces anxiety and depression
- B. Improves mood, but decreases alertness
- C. Decreases mood, alertness, and energy
- D. Decreases neural activity in the cerebral cortex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Physical activity is known to have a positive impact on mental health by reducing symptoms of anxiety and depression. Choice B is incorrect because physical activity generally improves both mood and alertness. Choice C is incorrect as physical activity tends to increase mood, alertness, and energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as physical activity actually increases neural activity in the cerebral cortex, which is associated with improved cognitive function and mental well-being.
5. According to Erikson, the major personality attainment of adolescence is __________.
- A. trust
- B. identity
- C. autonomy
- D. intimacy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the major personality attainment of adolescence is identity. During adolescence, individuals go through a stage called 'Identity vs. Role Confusion,' where they explore different roles and develop a sense of self. Trust (choice A) is associated with the first stage of Erikson's theory, autonomy (choice C) is linked to the toddler stage, and intimacy (choice D) is a key aspect of the young adulthood stage.
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