Nursing Elites

1. Like longitudinal research, cross-sectional studies can be threatened by __________.

• A. practice effects
• B. participant dropout
• C. sequential timing
• D. cohort effects

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cross-sectional studies can be threatened by cohort effects because different age groups may have experienced different historical or social contexts, influencing the results. This disparity can lead to invalid comparisons between age groups, confounding the study's findings. Option A, practice effects, refer to changes in participants' behavior due to repeated testing, not a specific threat to cross-sectional studies. Participant dropout (Option B) is a threat related to attrition in longitudinal studies, not cross-sectional studies. Sequential timing (Option C) does not pose a threat to cross-sectional studies; instead, it refers to the order of tasks in a study design.

2. In the United States, the second leading cause of neonatal mortality is __________, which is largely preventable.

• A. malnutrition
• B. physical abnormality
• C. low birth weight
• D. sudden infant death syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The second leading cause of neonatal mortality in the United States is low birth weight, which is largely preventable through proper prenatal care, nutrition, and health interventions. Low birth weight infants are at higher risk for various health complications and mortality, making it an important issue to address in maternal and child health programs. Malnutrition (choice A) can contribute to low birth weight but is not the direct cause of neonatal mortality. Physical abnormality (choice B) can be a factor in some cases but is not the second leading cause overall. Sudden infant death syndrome (choice D) refers to unexplained deaths of seemingly healthy babies and is not related to low birth weight as a leading cause of neonatal mortality.

3. Terrance, whose birth mother drank heavily throughout pregnancy, has a thin upper lip, short eyelid openings, a small head, and a smooth philtrum. His physical growth has been slow, and he shows impairment in memory, attention span, motor coordination, and social skills. Terrance has __________.

• A. fetal alcohol syndrome
• B. partial fetal alcohol syndrome
• C. alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder
• D. cytomegalovirus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Terrance exhibits a combination of physical abnormalities like a thin upper lip, short eyelid openings, a small head, and a smooth philtrum, along with developmental delays and cognitive impairments. These characteristics are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), which is caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. FAS is a severe condition resulting from prenatal alcohol exposure and is characterized by a range of physical, cognitive, and behavioral issues. Choice A, fetal alcohol syndrome, is the correct answer as it aligns with Terrance's symptoms and the effects of maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not encompass the full spectrum of symptoms and impairments presented by Terrance, which are specific to fetal alcohol syndrome.

4. When trying to soothe a crying baby, what technique do Western parents typically attempt first?

• A. Massaging the baby's body
• B. Offering a pacifier and a receiving blanket
• C. Playing recorded womb sounds or sounds of nature
• D. Lifting the baby to the shoulder and rocking or walking

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When Western parents aim to soothe a crying baby, the technique they usually try first is lifting the baby to the shoulder and rocking or walking. This method is effective because the motion and closeness provided by rocking or walking can help calm the baby and offer comfort. Choice A is incorrect as massaging the baby's body is not typically the first technique used. Choice B is incorrect as offering a pacifier and a receiving blanket may be tried after lifting the baby to the shoulder. Choice C is also incorrect as playing recorded sounds is usually not the initial technique attempted.

5. What increases from early to middle adulthood?

• A. Possible selves
• B. Self-doubt
• C. Destructiveness
• D. Autonomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Possible selves are ideas about what one might become in the future, which increase during the transition from early to middle adulthood. This period is characterized by individuals exploring and considering different potential future selves. Self-doubt (choice B) typically decreases as individuals become more confident and self-assured in middle adulthood. Destructiveness (choice C) is not a common developmental trend during this period. Autonomy (choice D) is a concept related to independence and self-governance, which may develop over a person's lifespan but does not specifically increase during the transition from early to middle adulthood.

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