Nursing Elites

1. Following cardiothoracic surgery where controlled therapeutic hypothermia was utilized to decrease metabolic demands, the nurse responsible for monitoring this client postoperatively should be assessing for which potential complication related to cold cardioplegia?

• A. Thrombocytopenia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Coagulopathy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coagulopathy is the correct answer. During therapeutic hypothermia, which lowers the body's temperature to reduce metabolic demands post-surgery, coagulopathy, or impaired blood clotting, is a potential complication due to the effects of cold cardioplegia. Thrombocytopenia (choice A) refers to a low platelet count and is not directly related to cold cardioplegia. Hypokalemia (choice B) is a condition of low potassium levels, and hyperglycemia (choice C) is high blood sugar levels, neither of which are primary complications of cold cardioplegia.

2. A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It decreases the absorption of calcium from the intestines.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It stimulates the formation of new bone.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing osteoporosis by maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not affect the absorption of calcium from the intestines. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone; instead, it primarily works by reducing bone loss.

3. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

4. What clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find in a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis?

• A. Dilated bronchioles, constriction of peripheral blood vessels, decreased capillary permeability
• B. Asthma, deep vein thrombosis, hepatic encephalopathy
• C. Narrowing of the bronchioles, dilation of the peripheral blood vessels, increased capillary permeability
• D. Left-sided heart failure, pulmonary embolism, urinary tract infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In anaphylaxis, the client would present with narrowing of the bronchioles, dilation of the peripheral blood vessels, and increased capillary permeability. These manifestations lead to symptoms such as difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and swelling. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the typical clinical manifestations of anaphylaxis.

5. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

• A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
• B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
• C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
• D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

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