Nursing Elites

1. A patient has suffered from several infections in the last 6 months and unexplained impaired wound healing. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Assess for pain.
• B. Assess for nutritional deficiencies.
• C. Assess genetic tendency for infection.
• D. Assess for edema and decreased hemoglobin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of multiple infections and impaired wound healing indicates a potential issue with their immune system and overall health. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Proper nutrition is essential for a healthy immune response and wound healing. Assessing for pain (choice A) may be important but addressing the root cause of the recurrent infections and impaired wound healing is crucial. Genetic tendency for infection (choice C) would be a less immediate concern compared to assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Edema and decreased hemoglobin (choice D) are not the most relevant assessments based on the patient's symptoms.

2. The registered nurse is teaching a class on inflammation and explains that which cell is the predominant phagocyte arriving early at inflammatory and infection sites?

• A. Macrophages
• B. Mast cells
• C. Monocytes
• D. Neutrophils

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neutrophils are the correct answer as they are the predominant phagocytes arriving early at inflammatory and infection sites. Neutrophils are part of the body's innate immune system and are among the first responders to sites of inflammation or infection. They play a crucial role in engulfing and destroying pathogens. Macrophages, although important phagocytes, usually arrive later at the site. Mast cells are involved in allergic reactions and not primarily phagocytes. Monocytes are precursors to macrophages and are not the predominant phagocytes arriving early at inflammatory sites.

3. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What critical information should the nurse provide during patient education?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so adequate calcium intake is important.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so patients should monitor their diet.
• D. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of breast cancer, so regular mammograms are essential.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed tamoxifen, a critical piece of information that the nurse should provide during patient education is that tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as weight gain is a possible side effect of tamoxifen, but it is not a critical piece of information compared to the risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is incorrect because tamoxifen is actually used to treat breast cancer, not increase its risk.

4. The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?

• A. Have you ever given your child any honey or honey-containing products?
• B. Is there any family history of neuromuscular diseases?
• C. Has your baby ever been directly exposed to any chemical cleaning products?
• D. Is there any mold in your home that you know of?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Botulism in infants is often linked to honey consumption. Asking the parents if they have ever given their child any honey or honey-containing products can provide crucial information for the differential diagnosis. This is important because infant botulism is commonly associated with the ingestion of honey contaminated with Clostridium botulinum spores. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant to botulism in infants as they do not directly relate to the typical causes of the condition. Family history of neuromuscular diseases (choice B) may be important for other conditions but not specifically for infant botulism. Direct exposure to chemical cleaning products (choice C) and the presence of mold in the home (choice D) are not typical risk factors for infant botulism.

5. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes
• B. Mumps
• C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
• D. Testicular trauma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

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