Nursing Elites

1. A patient has suffered from several infections in the last 6 months and unexplained impaired wound healing. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Assess for pain.
• B. Assess for nutritional deficiencies.
• C. Assess genetic tendency for infection.
• D. Assess for edema and decreased hemoglobin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of multiple infections and impaired wound healing indicates a potential issue with their immune system and overall health. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Proper nutrition is essential for a healthy immune response and wound healing. Assessing for pain (choice A) may be important but addressing the root cause of the recurrent infections and impaired wound healing is crucial. Genetic tendency for infection (choice C) would be a less immediate concern compared to assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Edema and decreased hemoglobin (choice D) are not the most relevant assessments based on the patient's symptoms.

2. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?

• A. “AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease.”
• B. “AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains.”
• C. “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it.”
• D. “AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.

3. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

• A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To prevent arrhythmias.
• D. To prevent the development of angina.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

4. After ingestion of cysts, how long does it take for the symptoms of giardiasis to develop?

• A. 12 to 24 hours
• B. 3 to 5 days
• C. 1 to 2 weeks
• D. 2 to 3 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Giardiasis symptoms typically develop 3 to 5 days after ingestion of the cysts. This timeframe aligns with the incubation period of the Giardia parasite. Choice A (12 to 24 hours) is too short for giardiasis to manifest. Choice C (1 to 2 weeks) and choice D (2 to 3 months) represent durations that are not consistent with the usual onset of symptoms in giardiasis.

5. Two people experience the same stressor yet only one is able to cope and adapt adequately. An example of the person with an increased capacity to adapt is the one with:

• A. A sense of purpose in life
• B. Circadian rhythm disruption
• C. Age-related renal dysfunction
• D. Excessive weight gain or loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A strong sense of purpose in life is associated with better stress coping mechanisms, which can enhance a person's capacity to adapt. Having a clear sense of purpose provides individuals with motivation, direction, and resilience to face challenges. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to an increased capacity to adapt to stress. Circadian rhythm disruption, age-related renal dysfunction, and excessive weight gain or loss may have negative impacts on overall well-being and stress management.

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