Nursing Elites

1. A 44-year-old man presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. He states that he has experienced difficulty climbing stairs and even holding his arms up to comb his hair. Which test is most likely to help confirm the diagnosis?

• A. Electromyography (EMG)
• B. Nerve conduction studies
• C. Muscle biopsy
• D. Blood test for autoantibodies

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Electromyography (EMG). EMG is commonly used to diagnose conditions involving muscle weakness and fatigue, such as myasthenia gravis. Nerve conduction studies primarily assess nerve function rather than muscle involvement. While a muscle biopsy can provide valuable information, EMG is more specific for evaluating muscle function in this context. A blood test for autoantibodies may be helpful in certain autoimmune conditions but is not the primary test for confirming the diagnosis based on the patient's symptoms of muscle weakness and fatigue.

2. Why does multiple sclerosis manifest as asymmetrical and in different parts of the body?

• A. Autoreactive lymphocytes are causing diffuse patchy damage to the myelin sheath in the central nervous system.
• B. Acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by immunoglobulin G.
• C. Autoreactive T lymphocytes cause progressive loss of neurons in the substantia nigra.
• D. Cortical motor cells degenerate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Multiple sclerosis is characterized by the immune system mistakenly attacking the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. This results in the formation of lesions that can occur in different parts of the central nervous system, leading to varied symptoms depending on the location of the damage. Choice A is the correct answer because it accurately describes the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe mechanisms or locations that are not associated with the pathogenesis of multiple sclerosis.

3. A patient has been diagnosed with a fungal infection and is to be treated with itraconazole (Sporanox). Prior to administration, the nurse notes that the patient is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for a seizure disorder. Based on this medication regime, which of the following will be true regarding the medications?

• A. The serum level of carbamazepine will be increased.
• B. The patient's carbamazepine should be discontinued.
• C. The patient's antiseizure medication should be changed.
• D. The patient will require a higher dosage of itraconazole (Sporanox).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When itraconazole is administered with carbamazepine, itraconazole may increase the serum levels of carbamazepine, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, choice A is correct. Discontinuing carbamazepine (choice B) or changing the antiseizure medication (choice C) is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice D, requiring a higher dosage of itraconazole, is not accurate in this scenario.

4. A patient arrives at her follow-up appointment 1 month post-hysterectomy and complains to the nurse that her scars do not seem to be healing properly. Upon inspection, the nurse notices that the scars are raised but still within the boundaries of the original incisions. The nurse tells the patient this kind of dysfunctional wound healing is called:

• A. Hypertrophic scarring
• B. Dehiscence
• C. Contracture
• D. A keloid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic scarring occurs when a scar is raised but remains within the boundaries of the original wound, unlike keloids, which extend beyond the wound edges. Dehiscence refers to the separation of wound edges, while contracture involves the tightening or constriction of a scar, leading to limited mobility.

5. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following is consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Right lower quadrant cramping
• B. Severe bloody diarrhea
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Mostly affects the rectum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crohn's disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. Right lower quadrant cramping is consistent with Crohn's disease as it commonly involves the terminal ileum, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Severe bloody diarrhea is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Nausea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract, not just the rectum, so it is not accurate to say it mostly affects the rectum.

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