Nursing Elites

1. A 22-year-old woman began using oral contraceptives several months ago and has presented for an appointment to discuss recent worrisome changes in her health status. Which of the following changes in the woman's health may the nurse potentially attribute to the use of oral contraceptives?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Frequent high blood pressure readings
• C. Frequent headaches without aura
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fatigue. Oral contraceptives can sometimes cause fatigue as a side effect. Frequent high blood pressure readings and frequent headaches without aura are less likely to be directly related to the use of oral contraceptives. Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of oral contraceptives but are not the changes typically associated with liver function affecting hormone metabolism as in the case of hepatitis C infection.

2. During the home visit of a client with dementia, the nurse notes that an adult daughter persistently corrects her father’s misperceptions of reality, even when the father becomes upset and anxious. Which intervention should the nurse teach the caregiver?

• A. Anxiety-reducing measures
• B. Positive reinforcement
• C. Reality orientation techniques
• D. Validation techniques

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Validation techniques. In dementia care, using validation techniques involves acknowledging the person's feelings and reality, even if it differs from actual events or facts. It helps in reducing the client's anxiety and distress. In this scenario, the daughter persistently correcting her father's misperceptions can escalate his anxiety. Teaching the daughter validation techniques will encourage her to validate her father's feelings and perceptions, ultimately promoting a more supportive and less confrontational environment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect in this context. While anxiety-reducing measures can be beneficial, the primary issue here is the father's misperceptions being consistently corrected. Positive reinforcement focuses on rewarding desired behaviors, which is not directly related to the situation described. Reality orientation techniques involve constantly reminding the person of the correct time, place, and other details, which may not be suitable for someone with dementia experiencing distress.

3. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

• A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To prevent arrhythmias.
• D. To prevent the development of angina.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

4. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?

• A. “Maybe it’s just caused by aging. This usually happens by age 82.”
• B. “The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn’t sure what was happening.”
• C. “Dad just didn’t seem to know what he was doing. He would forget what he had for breakfast.”
• D. “Dad has always been so independent. He’s lived alone for years since mom died.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.

5. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

• A. Hematocrit and hemoglobin
• B. ALT and AST
• C. Urine culture and sensitivity
• D. Erythrocyte count and differential

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

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