Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions is not caused by energy drinks?

• A. Nervousness
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Seizures
• D. Dental caries

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Energy drinks are known for causing a variety of health issues, including nervousness, seizures, and an increased risk of dental caries due to their high sugar content. However, they do not cause bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Instead, energy drinks are associated with causing an increased or rapid heart rate, known as tachycardia. Therefore, out of the listed options, bradycardia is the condition not caused by energy drinks.

2. A client with cholecystitis is being taught about required dietary modifications. Which of the following foods is appropriate for the client's diet?

• A. Creamed chicken
• B. Roast turkey
• C. Ice cream
• D. Macaroni and cheese

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Roast turkey is the most appropriate choice for a client with cholecystitis. Foods that are high in fat content, like creamed chicken, ice cream, and macaroni and cheese, should be avoided in cholecystitis as they can exacerbate symptoms due to the reduced ability of the gallbladder to process fats. Roast turkey is a leaner option that is better tolerated by individuals with cholecystitis.

3. Which of the following are examples of mechanical digestion? Select all that apply.

• A. Heat
• B. Segmentation
• C. Option B and D
• D. Peristalsis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Mechanical digestion involves physical movements that break down food in the digestive tract. Segmentation (choice B) and peristalsis (choice D), which are both movements of the muscles in the digestive tract, are examples of this type of digestion. Heat (choice A), on the other hand, is related to chemical digestion, not mechanical digestion. Therefore, choice C (Option B and D) is the correct answer as it includes both examples of mechanical digestion provided in the choices. Choices A and D are incorrect because heat (choice A) is not a mechanical digestion process, and peristalsis (choice D) is a movement that helps propel food along the digestive tract but is not directly involved in breaking down food physically.

4. A patient is admitted to the emergency room and is found to have proteinuria, a low serum albumin level, edema, and elevated blood lipids. Which condition do these symptoms typically associate with?

• A. Nephrotic syndrome
• B. Acute kidney injury
• C. Rejection of a kidney transplant
• D. Renal colic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria (excess protein in urine), hypoalbuminemia (low serum albumin), edema (swelling due to fluid buildup), and hyperlipidemia (elevated blood lipids). These symptoms occur as a result of damage to the kidneys' filtering units. Acute kidney injury, rejection of a kidney transplant, and renal colic do not present with the same combination of symptoms as nephrotic syndrome. Acute kidney injury typically presents with a sudden decrease in kidney function, resulting in a build-up of waste products in the blood. Rejection of a kidney transplant may present with fever, pain at the transplant site, and changes in urine output. Renal colic usually presents with intense pain in the lower back or side, related to kidney stones.

5. A client who was normal weight before pregnancy asks about the recommended weight gain during pregnancy. What should the nurse advise?

• A. 18-40 pounds
• B. 25-35 pounds
• C. 11-20 pounds
• D. 15-25 pounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 25-35 pounds. According to standard prenatal guidelines, a client with a normal pre-pregnancy weight is recommended to gain between 25-35 pounds during pregnancy. This weight gain is important for the overall health of the mother and the developing baby. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fall within the recommended weight gain range for a client with a normal pre-pregnancy weight.

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