ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019
1. Nurse DMLM is correct in identifying the correct sequence of events during abdominal assessment if she identifies which of the following?
- A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
- B. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation
- C. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
- D. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for abdominal assessment is Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation. Start with Inspection to observe any visible abnormalities, followed by Auscultation to listen for bowel sounds, then Percussion to assess the density of underlying structures, and finally Palpation to feel for any tenderness or masses. Choices A, B, and C have the incorrect sequence of assessment techniques.
2. A healthcare provider is educating a client who has a prescription for Theophylline. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Avoid caffeine while taking this medication.
- B. You should increase your fluid intake.
- C. Take this medication in the evening.
- D. You may experience increased appetite while on this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid caffeine while taking this medication.' Caffeine can increase the risk of theophylline toxicity as it competes for the same metabolic pathways. Consuming caffeine while on theophylline can lead to adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because although maintaining adequate hydration is important, it is not a specific instruction related to theophylline use. Choice C is incorrect as the timing of the medication administration should be based on the healthcare provider's recommendation and the client's individual needs. Choice D is incorrect as increased appetite is not a common side effect associated with theophylline.
3. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?
- A. Encourage deep, slow breathing.
- B. Encourage the patient to talk about their feelings.
- C. Leave the patient alone to calm down.
- D. Engage the patient in a physical activity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging deep, slow breathing is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack. This technique can help the patient regulate their breathing, reduce hyperventilation, and promote relaxation, which are essential in managing the symptoms of a panic attack. Choice B, encouraging the patient to talk about their feelings, may not be effective during an acute panic attack as the focus should be on calming the patient down. Choice C, leaving the patient alone, can lead to increased feelings of fear and isolation during a panic attack. Choice D, engaging the patient in physical activity, may exacerbate symptoms as it can increase the feeling of being out of control.
4. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client that was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?
- A. Is admitted to the surgical unit
- B. Is transferred from the PACU to the postsurgical unit
- C. Is able to perform activities of daily living independently
- D. Has been assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. Option A is the correct choice because it marks the initial point in the hospitalization process where discharge planning should start. Options B, C, and D are not the ideal points to begin discharge planning. Option B only signifies a transfer within the hospital, while Option C relates to the patient's independence in activities of daily living, which is not directly linked to discharge planning. Option D, having the patient assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery, is unrelated to the timing of discharge planning.
5. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.