ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. What is the primary function of a written nursing care plan?
- A. Evaluates whether nursing care goals have been achieved
- B. Ensures the provision of quality nursing care
- C. Assists in selecting the appropriate nursing interventions
- D. Facilitates the creation of a nursing diagnosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A written nursing care plan fundamentally serves to facilitate the development of a nursing diagnosis. This procedure involves analyzing patient data and identifying health problems that nurses can address independently. This analysis then aids in determining the most appropriate nursing interventions for the identified health issues. Although evaluating the achievement of nursing care goals is an important aspect, it is not the primary function of a nursing care plan. Similarly, while delivering quality nursing care is crucial, it is a broader concept that includes many other facets beyond just the initial nursing diagnosis and interventions.
2. A client is being taught about following a low-cholesterol diet after coronary artery bypass grafting. Which of the following food choices reflects the client's understanding of these dietary instructions?
- A. Liver
- B. Milk
- C. BEANS
- D. Eggs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choosing beans as a food option indicates that the client understands the low-cholesterol diet instructions. Beans are a good source of fiber and plant-based protein, which can help lower cholesterol levels. On the other hand, liver and eggs are high in cholesterol and should be limited in a low-cholesterol diet. Milk, especially whole milk, can also be high in saturated fats and cholesterol, so it is not the best choice for a low-cholesterol diet.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary needs by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse identify as being the lowest in phosphorus?
- A. Medium apple
- B. Bran cereal
- C. Scrambled eggs
- D. Ground turkey
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, a medium apple. Apples are a suitable option for clients with chronic kidney disease as they are low in phosphorus. Bran cereal (choice B), scrambled eggs (choice C), and ground turkey (choice D) are all higher in phosphorus content compared to apples, making them less ideal choices for individuals with chronic kidney disease.
4. Each of the following foods has cariostatic properties, with one exception. Which food is the exception?
- A. Eggs
- B. Instant oatmeal
- C. Cheese
- D. Seafood
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cariostatic foods are those that contribute to the prevention of tooth decay. Eggs, cheese, and seafood are all cariostatic foods, as they can aid in protecting against tooth decay. On the contrary, instant oatmeal does not possess these cariostatic properties. Due to its processed nature, it is more fermentable and cariogenic, which means it can encourage cavity formation. Although it is not directly harmful to the teeth, it does not provide the same defensive benefits against tooth decay as the other choices do. Therefore, 'Instant oatmeal' is the exception among these foods and is the correct answer.
5. A nurse is completing a nutritional assessment of an adult female client. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is at an increased risk of developing cancer?
- A. Eats at least 5 servings of fruits and vegetables daily.
- B. Eats 6 servings of whole grains daily.
- C. Limits alcohol consumption to 2 drinks per day.
- D. Limits red meat intake to 3oz per day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because limiting alcohol consumption to 2 drinks per day is still above the recommended limit for reducing cancer risk. The recommended limit for women is 1 drink per day to lower the risk of developing cancer. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an increased risk of developing cancer as they all align with a healthy diet and lifestyle, which can actually help reduce the risk of cancer.
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