ATI RN
Psychology 101 Final Exam
1. Cortisol is a hormone that ________
- A. is released by the hypothalamus and travels to the pituitary gland, causing it to respond.
- B. the pituitary gland releases to stimulate the adrenal gland.
- C. the adrenal gland produces that mobilizes the body to deal with stress.
- D. reduces the reuptake of the monoamine neurotransmitters.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cortisol is a hormone produced by the adrenal gland that mobilizes the body to deal with stress. It helps regulate metabolism, reduce inflammation, and assist in memory formulation. Choice A is incorrect as cortisol is not released by the hypothalamus and does not travel to the pituitary gland. Choice B is incorrect as cortisol is not released by the pituitary gland but acts on it to regulate hormone production. Choice D is incorrect as cortisol does not reduce the reuptake of monoamine neurotransmitters.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?
- A. Calcium carbonate
- B. Furosemide
- C. Epoetin alfa
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should avoid taking aspirin for headaches while on this medication.
- B. You should use a soft toothbrush to brush your teeth.
- C. You should avoid foods that are rich in vitamin K.
- D. You should avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement to include in discharge teaching for a client prescribed Warfarin is to use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so using a soft toothbrush can help prevent gum injury and bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin, another blood-thinning medication, should generally be avoided while on Warfarin to reduce the risk of bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because clients on Warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods rather than avoid them completely. Choice D is unrelated to the medication and not a priority teaching point for a client prescribed Warfarin.
4. While caring for a client receiving IV heparin, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Thrombocytopenia
- D. Leukopenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count, is a known adverse effect associated with heparin therapy. It can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and should be closely monitored during treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with heparin use; hyperglycemia is not a common adverse effect of heparin; leukopenia is not a primary side effect of heparin therapy.
5. During a focused assessment for a client with dysrhythmias, what indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Pulse deficit
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Bounding pulse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A pulse deficit is a crucial finding in clients with dysrhythmias as it indicates ineffective cardiac contractions. A pulse deficit occurs when the apical heart rate is faster than the radial pulse rate, suggesting that some heartbeats are not generating a pulse. This can be a sign of serious heart conditions like atrial fibrillation or heart failure. The other options, such as an increased heart rate (choice A), elevated blood pressure (choice C), and bounding pulse (choice D), do not specifically indicate ineffective cardiac contractions and are not directly associated with dysrhythmias.
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