a 45 year old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction if his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system then the nurse can educat
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology

1. A 45-year-old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction. If his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system, then the nurse can educate the client that the venous blood supply to the penis is controlled by:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erectile function is primarily controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system, which facilitates the dilation of blood vessels in the penis. The parasympathetic nerves are responsible for vasodilation in the penis, allowing blood to enter and creating an erection. Sympathetic nerves, on the other hand, are responsible for ejaculation by causing contraction of the muscles around the vas deferens. Somatic nerves are involved in sensation and movement, not specifically in controlling blood supply to the penis. Spinal reflexes can play a role in the erectile process, but they are not directly responsible for controlling the venous blood supply.

2. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse emphasize during patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, and redness in the legs, and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain is not a significant side effect of tamoxifen. Choice C is incorrect because hot flashes and menopausal symptoms are common side effects of tamoxifen but are not as critical to address as venous thromboembolism. Choice D is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of bone loss in premenopausal women.

3. A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care for a 76-year-old female client who is two days post-hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement) and who states that her pain has been out of control for the last several hours, though she is not exhibiting signs of pain. Which guideline should the nurse use for short-term and long-term treatment of the client's pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's report of pain should be taken seriously even if there are no outward signs. Choice B is incorrect because pain can be present without observable symptoms, and waiting for observable signs may delay appropriate pain management. Choice C is incorrect because the safety of long-term opioid use in elderly clients is a complex issue and should be carefully evaluated due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because while pain reassessment is important, it should not be limited to just after medication administration but should occur regularly to ensure adequate pain control.

4. A group of nursing students at Nurseslabs University is currently learning about family violence. Which of the following is true about the topic mentioned?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Family violence affects individuals across all socioeconomic levels. Family violence is not limited to any specific socioeconomic level; it can happen in any family, regardless of their economic status. Choice B is incorrect because while substance abuse can contribute to family violence, it is not the sole cause. Choice C is incorrect as family violence can occur in families from all socioeconomic backgrounds. Choice D is incorrect as family violence can indeed occur during pregnancy, posing serious risks to both the mother and the unborn child.

5. A patient who was frequently homeless over the past several years has begun a drug regimen consisting solely of isoniazid (INH). What is this patient's most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active tuberculosis. Given the patient's history of homelessness and initiation of isoniazid (INH) treatment, the most likely diagnosis is active tuberculosis. Isoniazid is a first-line medication used in the treatment of active tuberculosis. Latent tuberculosis (choice B) would not typically necessitate treatment with isoniazid alone. Mycobacterium avium complex (choice C) is not typically treated with isoniazid alone. Human immunodeficiency virus (choice D) is a risk factor for developing tuberculosis but is not the primary diagnosis in this patient scenario.

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