Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse include in the patient teaching regarding the expected outcomes of this therapy?

• A. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
• B. The effects of the medication may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
• C. The medication may cause increased hair growth.
• D. The medication may decrease libido.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable, so patients should be informed about this expected time frame. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as increased hair growth is a side effect of finasteride, not an expected outcome for BPH treatment. Choice D is also incorrect as decreased libido is a potential side effect of finasteride, not an expected outcome for BPH treatment.

2. What is the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia?

• A. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) defects
• B. Monogenic mutations, sedentary lifestyle, and high cholesterol diet
• C. Polygenic mutations and environmental factors
• D. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown.' Primary hypercholesteremia is mainly caused by mutations in the LDL receptor, leading to impaired clearance of LDL cholesterol from the blood. This results in high levels of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia.

3. Ivermectin (Stromectol) appears on a list of a patient's recent medications. The nurse who is reviewing the medications is justified in suspecting that the patient may have been receiving treatment for a parasitic infection with

• A. Entamoeba histolytica.
• B. Giardia lamblia.
• C. Strongyloides stercoralis.
• D. Plasmodium falciparum.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ivermectin (Stromectol) is commonly used to treat parasitic infections, particularly Strongyloides stercoralis. This parasitic infection is known to respond well to Ivermectin therapy. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebiasis and is typically treated with antiprotozoal drugs like metronidazole, not Ivermectin. Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite causing giardiasis, which is usually treated with medications like metronidazole or tinidazole, not Ivermectin. Plasmodium falciparum is a malaria-causing parasite and is not treated with Ivermectin but with antimalarial medications like chloroquine or artemisinin-based combination therapies.

4. A 54-year-old man presents with a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F), a racing heart, fatigue, and an upset stomach after spending an afternoon building a deck on a very hot, humid day. The physician assessing the man is performing a differential diagnosis as part of her assessment. Which finding would suggest fever rather than hyperthermia as a cause of the elevation in the man's temperature?

• A. Absence of sweating
• B. Shivering
• C. Lack of thirst
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shivering is a physiological response to fever, as the body attempts to generate heat to increase the internal temperature. Hyperthermia, on the other hand, does not involve shivering. Absence of sweating (choice A) is more indicative of hyperthermia, as the body struggles to cool down without sweating. Lack of thirst (choice C) can be seen in both fever and hyperthermia. Increased heart rate (choice D) can occur in both fever and hyperthermia due to the body's attempt to regulate temperature.

5. When starting on oral contraceptives, what key point should the nurse emphasize about taking the medication consistently?

• A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
• D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential to maximize contraceptive efficacy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence that taking oral contraceptives in the morning helps avoid nighttime side effects. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives do not provide immediate effectiveness and require consistent use to prevent pregnancy.

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