ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. As you are walking in the park, a huge black Labrador runs up to you and places his paws on your shoulders. Immediately your heart starts racing, you feel palpitations, anxiety, and your hands become a little shaky. The nurse knows that this response is primarily caused by:
- A. cerebral cortex.
- B. somatic nervous system.
- C. limbic system.
- D. autonomic nervous system.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary bodily functions like heart rate, respiration, and sweating. In the given scenario, the 'fight or flight' response is activated, leading to increased heart rate, palpitations, anxiety, and shaky hands. The cerebral cortex is involved in conscious thought processes and decision-making, not the immediate physiological response observed here. The somatic nervous system regulates voluntary movements, while the limbic system is responsible for emotions and memory, but the autonomic nervous system is primarily responsible for the physiological responses seen in this situation.
2. A male patient with hypogonadism is receiving testosterone therapy. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Increased risk of breast cancer
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial when administering testosterone therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy does not typically lead to an increased risk of breast cancer, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.
3. A 70-year-old woman has difficulty with driving, and she has been frequently getting lost. Her husband said she has also been acting strange and seems to want to sleep a lot. He said the other night she kept saying she was seeing animals such as lions in her room. He says her memory is not too bad, but he is very concerned about her health. Physical examination reveals an alert woman with stable vital signs. Bradykinesia and limb rigidity are noted. These findings are consistent with:
- A. Alzheimer's disease.
- B. Vascular dementia.
- C. Dementia with Lewy bodies.
- D. Frontotemporal dementia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario, such as visual hallucinations, fluctuations in cognition, and parkinsonism (bradykinesia and limb rigidity), are classic features of dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB). DLB is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies in the brain, which are abnormal protein deposits. Alzheimer's disease (Choice A) typically presents with memory loss as a predominant symptom, which is not a major concern in this case. Vascular dementia (Choice B) is associated with a history of cerebrovascular disease and is not supported by the symptoms described. Frontotemporal dementia (Choice D) usually presents with changes in behavior and personality, rather than the symptoms described in the scenario.
4. What causes type I diabetes?
- A. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas
- B. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin
- C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance
- D. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.
5. The parents of a 3-year-old boy have brought him to a pediatrician for assessment of the boy's late ambulation and frequent falls. Subsequent muscle biopsy has confirmed a diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which teaching point should the physician include when explaining the child's diagnosis to his parents?
- A. Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.
- B. Your child is likely to benefit from physical therapy and exercise.
- C. This condition can be cured with early intervention and treatment.
- D. The disease is caused by inflammation in the muscles, which leads to weakness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching point that the physician should include when explaining Duchenne muscular dystrophy to the parents is that 'Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.' Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a progressive condition that affects muscle strength, including respiratory muscles, leading to breathing difficulties as the disease advances. Choice B is incorrect because while physical therapy and exercise can help maintain muscle function and mobility, they do not cure the condition. Choice C is incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder with no known cure. Choice D is incorrect as Duchenne muscular dystrophy is primarily characterized by a lack of dystrophin protein due to genetic mutations, not inflammation in the muscles.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access