ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. As you are walking in the park, a huge black Labrador runs up to you and places his paws on your shoulders. Immediately your heart starts racing, you feel palpitations, anxiety, and your hands become a little shaky. The nurse knows that this response is primarily caused by:
- A. cerebral cortex.
- B. somatic nervous system.
- C. limbic system.
- D. autonomic nervous system.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary bodily functions like heart rate, respiration, and sweating. In the given scenario, the 'fight or flight' response is activated, leading to increased heart rate, palpitations, anxiety, and shaky hands. The cerebral cortex is involved in conscious thought processes and decision-making, not the immediate physiological response observed here. The somatic nervous system regulates voluntary movements, while the limbic system is responsible for emotions and memory, but the autonomic nervous system is primarily responsible for the physiological responses seen in this situation.
2. The parents of a 3-year-old boy have brought him to a pediatrician for assessment of the boy's late ambulation and frequent falls. Subsequent muscle biopsy has confirmed a diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which teaching point should the physician include when explaining the child's diagnosis to his parents?
- A. Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.
- B. Your child is likely to benefit from physical therapy and exercise.
- C. This condition can be cured with early intervention and treatment.
- D. The disease is caused by inflammation in the muscles, which leads to weakness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching point that the physician should include when explaining Duchenne muscular dystrophy to the parents is that 'Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.' Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a progressive condition that affects muscle strength, including respiratory muscles, leading to breathing difficulties as the disease advances. Choice B is incorrect because while physical therapy and exercise can help maintain muscle function and mobility, they do not cure the condition. Choice C is incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder with no known cure. Choice D is incorrect as Duchenne muscular dystrophy is primarily characterized by a lack of dystrophin protein due to genetic mutations, not inflammation in the muscles.
3. A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?
- A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B. Protease inhibitors
- C. Entrance inhibitors
- D. Highly active antiretroviral therapy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). HAART involves a combination of different classes of antiretroviral drugs, which can effectively suppress the HIV virus, reduce the viral load, and improve the immune function. While choices A, B, and C are also used in HIV treatment, the most effective approach is a combination therapy like HAART due to its ability to target the virus at different stages of its life cycle, reducing the risk of drug resistance and improving treatment outcomes.
4. The college health nurse is providing health education for freshmen. Which of the following pieces of information about immunizations is applicable to individuals of this age group?
- A. The oral polio vaccine should be updated.
- B. The yearly administration of flu vaccine is recommended.
- C. The tetanus toxoid should be within 2 years.
- D. The administration of hepatitis A vaccine is mandatory.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For freshmen in college, the yearly administration of the flu vaccine is recommended. This is important to protect against seasonal influenza outbreaks that can spread rapidly in close living quarters such as dormitories. Choice A is incorrect as oral polio vaccine is not typically given to individuals of this age group. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid boosters are usually recommended every 10 years, not within 2 years. Choice D is incorrect as the administration of the hepatitis A vaccine is not mandatory for all individuals in this age group.
5. In menopausal women, what is the primary goal of estrogen therapy?
- A. To relieve menopausal symptoms
- B. To prevent osteoporosis
- C. To increase calcium absorption
- D. To maintain bone strength
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of estrogen therapy in menopausal women is to prevent osteoporosis by maintaining bone density. Estrogen helps in preserving bone mass and reducing the risk of fractures. While estrogen therapy may alleviate some menopausal symptoms, such as hot flashes, its primary focus is on bone health rather than symptom management. Increasing calcium absorption and maintaining bone strength are outcomes of preventing osteoporosis rather than the primary goal of estrogen therapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access