which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. Which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy?

A. Reversible with cognitive therapy in infancy
B. Transient and resolves in adulthood through physical therapy
C. Manifests in adulthood after regular childhood activities
D. Irreversible and occurs before, during, or after birth or infancy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cerebral palsy involves irreversible damage to the brain that occurs before, during, or shortly after birth, impacting movement and coordination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cerebral palsy is not reversible with cognitive therapy or physical therapy, does not resolve in adulthood, and does not manifest in adulthood after regular childhood activities.

2. A woman has been prescribed Climara, a transdermal estradiol patch. Which of the following should she be instructed by the nurse regarding the administration?

A. Avoid prolonged sun exposure at the patch site due to increased plasma concentrations.
B. The application of heat at the patch site will decrease effectiveness and result in pregnancy.
C. The medication, when exposed to sunlight, can increase the risk of breast cancer.
D. Exposure of the medication to occasional cold will increase effectiveness with application.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The Climara patch delivers estradiol transdermally, and patients should be instructed to avoid prolonged sun exposure at the patch site due to increased plasma concentrations. Sun exposure can accelerate the absorption of the medication, leading to higher systemic levels than intended. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because heat at the patch site does not result in pregnancy but may alter absorption rates, there is no direct link between sunlight exposure and breast cancer risk related to this medication, and exposure to cold does not increase effectiveness of the transdermal patch.

3. Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values?

A. PH 7.25, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, PaO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 18 mEq/L
B. PH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 80 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
C. PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
D. PH 7.15, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. These values represent a balanced state for arterial blood gas. Choice A has lower than normal PH and HCO3 levels and higher PaCO2 and lower PaO2 levels. Choice B has higher than normal PH and HCO3 levels, lower PaCO2, and a normal PaO2 level. Choice D has a significantly lower PH and PaO2 level, normal HCO3 level, and low PaCO2 level, indicating an acidic state with impaired oxygenation.

4. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
B. Increased risk of prostate cancer
C. Increased risk of bone fractures
D. Increased risk of breast cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of liver dysfunction. Testosterone therapy can lead to liver dysfunction, including cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis. This adverse effect necessitates monitoring of liver function tests during testosterone therapy. Choice B, increased risk of prostate cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy does not cause prostate cancer but is contraindicated in patients with known or suspected prostate cancer. Choice C, increased risk of bone fractures, is incorrect as testosterone therapy is actually associated with an increase in bone mineral density, reducing the risk of fractures. Choice D, increased risk of breast cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy in males does not increase the risk of breast cancer.

5. What is the common denominator of all forms of heart failure?

A. Pulmonary edema
B. Jugular venous distention
C. Peripheral edema
D. Reduced cardiac output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced cardiac output. All forms of heart failure share the common denominator of reduced cardiac output, which leads to inadequate tissue perfusion. Pulmonary edema (choice A) is a consequence of heart failure but not the common denominator. Jugular venous distention (choice B) and peripheral edema (choice C) are signs of heart failure but do not represent the common denominator shared by all forms.