ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the client has a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome. The client asks, 'What is that?' How should the nursing student reply?
- A. A type of paralysis that affects movement on both sides of the body. It may even involve the respiratory muscles.
- B. Swelling of your arm where you got your flu shot and maybe your eyes and lips had some swelling as well.
- C. A degenerative disease where you have trouble walking without the help of a cane or walker.
- D. Influenza-like illness where you had fever and chills for 2 to 3 days after your last flu shot.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barré syndrome.
2. During an acute asthma exacerbation, what is the priority nursing intervention for a client with asthma?
- A. Administer corticosteroids to reduce airway inflammation.
- B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
- C. Administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed.
- D. Obtain a peak flow reading to assess the severity of the exacerbation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention during an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed. SABAs help in quickly relieving bronchospasm and are considered the first-line treatment for acute exacerbations. Administering corticosteroids, positioning the client, and obtaining a peak flow reading are important interventions but come after administering SABAs in the management of acute asthma exacerbation.
3. A patient is being treated with amphotericin B. Which of the following statements indicates that the patient has understood the patient teaching?
- A. “The medication may cause diabetes.”
- B. “The medication will cause liver necrosis.”
- C. “The medication may cause kidney damage.”
- D. “The medication will cause pancreatitis.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The medication may cause kidney damage.' Amphotericin B is known for its potential to cause nephrotoxicity, which can manifest as kidney damage. It is crucial for the patient to be aware of this possible adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because amphotericin B is not typically associated with causing diabetes, liver necrosis, or pancreatitis. Therefore, these statements do not reflect an accurate understanding of the medication's side effects.
4. A patient has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus (CMV). Which of the following drugs would be ineffective in the treatment of this disease?
- A. Ribavirin (Rebetol)
- B. Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV
- C. Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV
- D. Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Ribavirin (Rebetol). Ribavirin is not effective against CMV. Choice B, Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV, is a common treatment for CMV as it inhibits viral DNA synthesis. Choice C, Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV, is also used for CMV infections by blocking viral DNA polymerase. Choice D, Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte), is a prodrug of Ganciclovir and is effective against CMV. Therefore, Ribavirin is the drug that would be ineffective in treating CMV.
5. Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values?
- A. PH 7.25, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, PaO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 18 mEq/L
- B. PH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 80 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
- C. PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
- D. PH 7.15, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. These values represent a balanced state for arterial blood gas. Choice A has lower than normal PH and HCO3 levels and higher PaCO2 and lower PaO2 levels. Choice B has higher than normal PH and HCO3 levels, lower PaCO2, and a normal PaO2 level. Choice D has a significantly lower PH and PaO2 level, normal HCO3 level, and low PaCO2 level, indicating an acidic state with impaired oxygenation.
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