Nursing Elites

1. A woman has been prescribed Climara, a transdermal estradiol patch. Which of the following should she be instructed by the nurse regarding the administration?

• A. Avoid prolonged sun exposure at the patch site due to increased plasma concentrations.
• B. The application of heat at the patch site will decrease effectiveness and result in pregnancy.
• C. The medication, when exposed to sunlight, can increase the risk of breast cancer.
• D. Exposure of the medication to occasional cold will increase effectiveness with application.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The Climara patch delivers estradiol transdermally, and patients should be instructed to avoid prolonged sun exposure at the patch site due to increased plasma concentrations. Sun exposure can accelerate the absorption of the medication, leading to higher systemic levels than intended. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because heat at the patch site does not result in pregnancy but may alter absorption rates, there is no direct link between sunlight exposure and breast cancer risk related to this medication, and exposure to cold does not increase effectiveness of the transdermal patch.

2. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?

• A. “Maybe it’s just caused by aging. This usually happens by age 82.”
• B. “The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn’t sure what was happening.”
• C. “Dad just didn’t seem to know what he was doing. He would forget what he had for breakfast.”
• D. “Dad has always been so independent. He’s lived alone for years since mom died.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.

3. Canola oil produced from genetically modified canola plants altered to be herbicide-resistant is an example of a:

• A. pesticide-free food.
• B. saturated fat food.
• C. genetically modified food.
• D. product that is pure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'genetically modified food.' Canola oil derived from genetically modified canola plants falls into this category because the plant's genome has been altered to exhibit herbicide resistance. This genetic modification makes it a genetically modified food. Choice A, 'pesticide-free food,' is incorrect as the genetic modification is to resist herbicides, not pesticides. Choice B, 'saturated fat food,' is incorrect as it does not accurately describe the genetic modification of the canola plants. Choice D, 'product that is pure,' is too vague and does not address the genetic modification aspect of the canola plants.

4. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
• D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

5. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?

• A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
• B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
• C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
• D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.

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