ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A child's thymus gland is fully formed and proportionately larger than an adult's. Which of the following processes that contribute to immunity takes place in the thymus gland?
- A. Differentiation of B cells
- B. Production of natural killer (NK) cells
- C. Proliferation of T cells
- D. Filtration of antigens from the blood
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proliferation of T cells. The thymus gland is responsible for the maturation and proliferation of T cells, which play a crucial role in adaptive immunity. Option A, differentiation of B cells, is incorrect because B cell maturation primarily occurs in the bone marrow. Option B, production of natural killer (NK) cells, is incorrect as NK cells are mainly produced in the bone marrow and lymph nodes. Option D, filtration of antigens from the blood, is incorrect as antigen filtration is not a primary function of the thymus gland.
2. A 70-year-old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot. The client also exhibits speech difficulties. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?
- A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
- B. Brain tumor
- C. Cerebral infarction
- D. Multiple sclerosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cerebral infarction (stroke). In this case, the client's symptoms of weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot, along with speech difficulties, are indicative of a stroke. These symptoms are commonly seen in individuals experiencing a cerebral infarction, where a blockage in blood flow to the brain leads to neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are less likely as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) typically have temporary symptoms with no permanent damage, brain tumors may present with a different set of symptoms depending on their location, and multiple sclerosis usually presents with a relapsing-remitting pattern of neurological symptoms rather than sudden onset unilateral deficits.
3. A 69-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with malignant melanoma. The care team has collaborated with the patient and her family and agreed on a plan of care that includes administration of interferon alfa-2b. After administering interferon alfa-2b, the oncology nurse should anticipate that the patient may develop which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Profound diaphoresis
- B. Decreased level of consciousness
- C. Flu-like symptoms
- D. Cyanosis and pallor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After the administration of interferon alfa-2b, the patient may develop flu-like symptoms as an adverse effect. Flu-like symptoms are commonly associated with interferon therapy, including fever, chills, fatigue, and muscle aches. These symptoms usually subside over time. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with interferon alfa-2b administration. Profound diaphoresis is excessive sweating, decreased level of consciousness indicates neurological issues, and cyanosis and pallor suggest circulatory or respiratory problems, none of which are expected adverse effects of interferon alfa-2b.
4. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?
- A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
- B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
- C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
- D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.
5. What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?
- A. HRT is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer, so these risks should be discussed with the patient.
- B. HRT can improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should undergo regular screening.
- D. HRT decreases the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT), the nurse should discuss the increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer with the patient. These risks are important to consider to make an informed decision. Choice B is incorrect as HRT does not increase the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may help prevent it. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, regular screening is not the primary focus for discussion. Choice D is incorrect as HRT does not decrease the risk of fractures and is not primarily associated with an increased risk of developing diabetes.
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