Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of exercise-induced asthma?

• A. Bronchospasm after exercise
• B. IgE-mediated inflammatory response to antigen
• C. Bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods
• D. Increased mucus production due to a genetic mutation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Bronchospasm after exercise.' Exercise-induced asthma involves the narrowing of the airways (bronchospasm) triggered by physical activity. This bronchospasm leads to symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because exercise-induced asthma is not primarily caused by an IgE-mediated inflammatory response to an antigen, bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods, or increased mucus production due to a genetic mutation.

2. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding potential side effects?

• A. Weight gain, mood changes, and nausea
• B. Increased appetite, insomnia, and fatigue
• C. Breast tenderness, headaches, and dizziness
• D. Fatigue, hair loss, and joint pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain, mood changes, and nausea are common side effects of oral contraceptives. Weight gain may occur due to fluid retention or changes in metabolism. Mood changes can be caused by hormonal fluctuations. Nausea is a common side effect that usually improves after a few months of use. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect common side effects associated with oral contraceptives. Increased appetite, insomnia, breast tenderness, headaches, dizziness, fatigue, hair loss, and joint pain are not typically reported side effects of oral contraceptives.

3. On the advice of his brother, a 53-year-old man has made an appointment to request a prescription for Viagra. The nurse who works at the clinic is reviewing the man's medical history and would recognize what health problem as being prohibitive to this treatment?

• A. Type 2 diabetes, treated with metformin
• B. Hypercholesterolemia, treated with simvastatin
• C. Angina, treated with nitroglycerin
• D. Hypertension, treated with metoprolol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated with Viagra due to their combined effects on lowering blood pressure, which can result in a severe drop and potentially life-threatening complications. Using both medications together can lead to hypotension, putting the patient at risk. Therefore, the presence of angina treated with nitroglycerin would make prescribing Viagra unsafe. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with Viagra and can be managed concurrently with this treatment.

4. What causes type I diabetes?

• A. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas
• B. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin
• C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance
• D. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.

5. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

• A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To prevent arrhythmias.
• D. To prevent the development of angina.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

Similar Questions