which of the following describes the pathophysiology of exercise induced asthma
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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of exercise-induced asthma?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Bronchospasm after exercise.' Exercise-induced asthma involves the narrowing of the airways (bronchospasm) triggered by physical activity. This bronchospasm leads to symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because exercise-induced asthma is not primarily caused by an IgE-mediated inflammatory response to an antigen, bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods, or increased mucus production due to a genetic mutation.

2. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Palpable kidneys. Polycystic kidney disease often leads to the development of multiple fluid-filled cysts within the kidneys, causing them to enlarge. Enlarged kidneys can be palpated during a physical examination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suprapubic pain is not a typical clinical manifestation of polycystic kidney disease. Periorbital edema is more commonly associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome or heart failure. Low serum creatinine level is not expected in patients with renal impairment due to polycystic kidney disease; instead, elevated serum creatinine levels are more likely.

3. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, such as Evista, works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This medication is beneficial in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by slowing down the breakdown of bone tissue, thereby reducing the risk of fractures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

4. A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV fluconazole, the nurse should avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV. Fluconazole is known to cause phlebitis and tissue irritation if infused through a peripheral IV line. It is recommended to administer fluconazole through a central venous catheter to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to administer the drug with lactated Ringer's, infuse it at a particular rate, or administer prophylactic heparin prior to fluconazole in this scenario.

5. A report comes back indicating that muscular atrophy has occurred. A nurse recalls that muscular atrophy involves a decrease in muscle cell size:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Size. Muscular atrophy is characterized by a reduction in the size of muscle cells. This decrease in size can be due to various factors such as disuse, aging, or disease. Choice A, Number, is incorrect because muscular atrophy does not involve a decrease in the number of muscle cells but rather their size. Choice C, Vacuoles, is incorrect as vacuoles are not directly related to the definition of muscular atrophy. Choice D, Lipofuscin, is incorrect as lipofuscin is a pigment associated with aging and has no direct connection to the decrease in muscle cell size seen in muscular atrophy.

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