ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A patient being treated for tuberculosis is determined to be drug resistant. Which of the following medications will the patient be resistant to in the treatment of tuberculosis?
- A. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin
- B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
- C. Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) and doxapram (Dopram)
- D. Propranolol (Inderal) and sotalol (Betapace)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the treatment of tuberculosis, drug resistance commonly develops against medications like Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. These two drugs are key components of the standard anti-tuberculosis treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated medications that are not used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Carbamazepine and phenytoin are anticonvulsants, dextroamphetamine is a stimulant, and propranolol and sotalol are used for cardiovascular conditions.
2. A patient with hypothyroidism should be advised to consume more of which nutrient?
- A. Calcium
- B. Iodine
- C. Vitamin C
- D. Iron
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iodine. Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone production, and its deficiency can contribute to hypothyroidism. While calcium, vitamin C, and iron are important for overall health, they are not specifically related to thyroid function. Calcium is more associated with bone health, vitamin C with immune function, and iron with red blood cell production.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a young adult client with a serum calcium level of 8.8 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Calcitonin-salmon
- B. Calcium carbonate
- C. Zoledronic acid
- D. Ibandronate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's serum calcium level is below the expected reference range, indicating hypocalcemia. Calcium carbonate, an oral form of calcium, is used to increase serum calcium levels to the expected range in cases of hypocalcemia. It helps correct the deficiency by supplementing calcium in the body.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is experiencing severe anxiety. Which of the following symptoms should the healthcare professional expect to observe?
- A. Restlessness
- B. Rapid heart rate
- C. Sweating
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rapid heart rate is a characteristic symptom of severe anxiety due to the body's fight-or-flight response being activated. This physiological response leads to an increased heart rate to prepare the body to deal with perceived threats. Healthcare professionals should be vigilant in monitoring and managing this symptom in clients experiencing severe anxiety.
5. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL
- B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
- C. Dyspnea
- D. Bilateral equal pupil size
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.
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