ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. A 65-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit from the operating room after a triple coronary artery bypass graft. He is intubated and on a ventilator. Lactic acid levels were normal postoperatively, but now they are rising. The increased level could be an indication of:
- A. excessive sedation
- B. bowel ischemia
- C. excessive volume infusion in the operating room
- D. mild hypothermia postoperatively
Correct answer: bowel ischemia
Rationale: In this scenario, the rising lactic acid levels in a 65-year-old man after a coronary artery bypass graft could indicate bowel ischemia. Bowel ischemia can lead to anaerobic metabolism, causing an increase in lactic acid levels. Excessive sedation may cause respiratory depression but would not directly lead to rising lactic acid levels. Excessive volume infusion in the operating room might cause fluid overload but would not typically result in rising lactic acid levels. Mild hypothermia postoperatively could lead to shivering and increased oxygen consumption, but it is less likely to be the primary cause of rising lactic acid levels in this context.
2. The client being seen in a physician’s office has just been scheduled for a barium swallow the next day. The nurse writes down which of the following instructions for the client to follow before the test?
- A. Fast for 8 hours before the test.
- B. Eat a regular supper and breakfast.
- C. Continue to take all oral medications as scheduled.
- D. Monitor own bowel movement pattern for constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A barium swallow is an x-ray study that uses a substance called barium for contrast to highlight abnormalities in the gastrointestinal tract. The client should fast for 8 to 12 hours before the test, depending on physician instructions. Most oral medications also are withheld before the test. After the procedure the nurse must monitor for constipation, which can occur as a result of the presence of barium in the gastrointestinal tract.
3. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?
- A. Encourage deep, slow breathing.
- B. Encourage the patient to talk about their feelings.
- C. Leave the patient alone to calm down.
- D. Engage the patient in a physical activity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging deep, slow breathing is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack. This technique can help the patient regulate their breathing, reduce hyperventilation, and promote relaxation, which are essential in managing the symptoms of a panic attack. Choice B, encouraging the patient to talk about their feelings, may not be effective during an acute panic attack as the focus should be on calming the patient down. Choice C, leaving the patient alone, can lead to increased feelings of fear and isolation during a panic attack. Choice D, engaging the patient in physical activity, may exacerbate symptoms as it can increase the feeling of being out of control.
4. A 14-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB). Which assessment findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Cyanosis and dyspnea
- B. Productive cough and high fever
- C. Barking cough and inspiratory stridor
- D. Pale laryngeal and dyspnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Barking cough and inspiratory stridor.' Classic signs of laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) include a barking cough, often described as a seal-like cough, and inspiratory stridor, which is a high-pitched sound heard during inspiration. These symptoms occur due to inflammation and narrowing of the upper airway. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical assessment findings of LTB. Cyanosis and dyspnea (Choice A) may occur in severe cases but are not specific to LTB. Productive cough and high fever (Choice B) are more indicative of lower respiratory tract infections. Pale laryngeal and dyspnea (Choice D) are not characteristic findings of LTB.
5. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?
- A. 32-year-old with diarrhea for 6 hours
- B. 2-year-old with 1 wet diaper in 24 hours
- C. 40-year-old with abdominal cramping
- D. 10-year-old who is nauseated
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of food poisoning, a 2-year-old with reduced urine output is a critical finding indicating dehydration, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. The reduced urine output is a sign of decreased fluid intake or increased fluid loss, putting the child at high risk for dehydration. This client should be seen first to assess hydration status, initiate necessary interventions, and prevent further complications. While the other symptoms presented by the other clients are concerning, the 2-year-old's decreased urine output poses the most immediate threat to their well-being.
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