ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. A 65-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit from the operating room after a triple coronary artery bypass graft. He is intubated and on a ventilator. Lactic acid levels were normal postoperatively, but now they are rising. The increased level could be an indication of:
- A. excessive sedation
- B. bowel ischemia
- C. excessive volume infusion in the operating room
- D. mild hypothermia postoperatively
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the rising lactic acid levels in a 65-year-old man after a coronary artery bypass graft could indicate bowel ischemia. Bowel ischemia can lead to anaerobic metabolism, causing an increase in lactic acid levels. Excessive sedation may cause respiratory depression but would not directly lead to rising lactic acid levels. Excessive volume infusion in the operating room might cause fluid overload but would not typically result in rising lactic acid levels. Mild hypothermia postoperatively could lead to shivering and increased oxygen consumption, but it is less likely to be the primary cause of rising lactic acid levels in this context.
2. When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the education regarding the timing of the medication?
- A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
- D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, it is essential to stress the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This ensures stable hormone levels, improving the effectiveness of the contraceptives in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is crucial for maintaining hormone levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning to avoid side effects. Choice D is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective, and consistent timing is important for their efficacy.
3. Which of the following are manifestations of Cushing syndrome?
- A. Truncal obesity with thin extremities.
- B. Enlargement of face, hands, and feet.
- C. Cachexia.
- D. Thick scalp hair.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Truncal obesity with thin extremities is a classic manifestation of Cushing syndrome due to the redistribution of fat. Enlargement of face, hands, and feet is seen in conditions like acromegaly, not Cushing syndrome. Cachexia is a state of severe weight loss and muscle wasting, typically seen in conditions like cancer or advanced infections. Thick scalp hair is not typically associated with Cushing syndrome.
4. A family member expresses concern to a nurse about behavioral changes in an elderly aunt. Which would cause the nurse to suspect a cognitive impairment disorder?
- A. Decreased interest in activities that she once enjoyed
- B. Fear of being alone at night
- C. Increased complaints of physical ailments
- D. Problems with preparing a meal or balancing her checkbook
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Problems with tasks like meal preparation and balancing a checkbook can indicate cognitive impairment, as these activities involve cognitive functions such as memory, attention, and executive function. Choices A, B, and C are less indicative of cognitive impairment. Decreased interest in activities and increased complaints of physical ailments may be related to other factors like depression, while fear of being alone at night could be due to anxiety or other psychological issues.
5. A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should
- A. administer the drug with lactated Ringer's.
- B. infuse the drug no faster than 200 mg/h.
- C. avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV.
- D. administer prophylactic heparin prior to the fluconazole.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When administering IV fluconazole, the nurse should avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV. Fluconazole is known to cause phlebitis and tissue irritation if infused through a peripheral IV line. It is recommended to administer fluconazole through a central venous catheter to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to administer the drug with lactated Ringer's, infuse it at a particular rate, or administer prophylactic heparin prior to fluconazole in this scenario.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access