Nursing Elites

1. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:

• A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
• B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
• C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
• D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.

2. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse emphasize about the risks associated with this therapy?

• A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. HRT may improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT can decrease the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.
• D. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer, so regular mammograms are essential.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur.

3. A nursing student having trouble moving her head from side to side is likely experiencing a problem with which type of neurons?

• A. General visceral efferent neurons
• B. Preganglionic neurons
• C. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
• D. Pharyngeal efferent neurons

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pharyngeal efferent neurons. Pharyngeal efferent neurons are responsible for controlling head movements, including side-to-side motions. General visceral efferent neurons (Choice A) are involved in innervating smooth muscles and glands in the body's internal organs. Preganglionic neurons (Choice B) are part of the autonomic nervous system and connect the central nervous system to the ganglia. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons (Choice C) are the second neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system pathway, responsible for innervating target organs. In this case, the issue with moving the head from side to side indicates a problem with the pharyngeal efferent neurons.

4. What is the primary action of bisphosphonates when prescribed to a patient with osteoporosis?

• A. It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density.
• B. It stimulates new bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines, which helps build stronger bones.
• D. It decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys, helping to maintain bone density.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density." Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting bone resorption carried out by osteoclasts, thereby preventing the breakdown of bones and helping to maintain or increase bone density in patients with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bisphosphonates do not directly stimulate new bone formation, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or decrease calcium excretion by the kidneys.

5. A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of testosterone gel for the treatment of hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Apply the gel after showering, and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
• B. Apply the gel to the genitals for maximum absorption.
• C. Apply the gel before bedtime to enhance absorption during sleep.
• D. Apply the gel to the face and neck for improved results.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply testosterone gel after showering and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This helps prevent the transfer of the gel to others and ensures proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because the gel should not be applied to the genitals. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific benefit to applying the gel before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as the gel should not be applied to the face and neck for the treatment of hypogonadism.

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