a patient with hypokalemia is being monitored what should the nurse assess for

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. A patient with hypokalemia is being monitored. What should the nurse assess for?

A. Muscle weakness
B. Flattened T waves
C. Checking deep tendon reflexes
D. Seizures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A patient with hypokalemia is being monitored. What should the nurse assess for? Corrected Choice A: Muscle weakness Corrected Choice B: Flattened T waves Corrected Choice C: Checking deep tendon reflexes Corrected Choice D: Seizures Rationale: Hypokalemia is associated with muscle weakness due to the effect of low potassium levels on muscle function. Flattened T waves on an ECG are characteristic of hypokalemia but are not a direct assessment for the patient's condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes and seizures are not primary symptoms associated with hypokalemia, making them less relevant for monitoring a patient with this electrolyte imbalance.

2. What is the first intervention for a patient admitted with unstable angina?

A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Obtain cardiac enzymes
C. Start IV fluids
D. Monitor for chest pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a patient admitted with unstable angina is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps to relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart, thereby reducing cardiac workload. This intervention aims to alleviate symptoms and prevent further cardiac damage. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (Choice B) is important for diagnosing a myocardial infarction but is not the initial intervention for unstable angina. Starting IV fluids (Choice C) may be indicated in specific cases like hypovolemia but is not the primary intervention for unstable angina. Monitoring for chest pain (Choice D) is essential but taking action to alleviate the pain, like administering nitroglycerin, is the primary focus in the initial management of unstable angina.

3. What is the first-line treatment for a patient experiencing wheezing and coughing due to an allergic reaction?

A. Albuterol via nebulizer
B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
C. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction as it quickly opens the airways, providing rapid relief. Choice B, Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV, is a systemic corticosteroid that may be used in severe cases to reduce inflammation but is not the initial treatment for acute wheezing. Choice C, Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer, is a mast cell stabilizer that is more commonly used for prophylaxis rather than acute relief in allergic conditions. Choice D, Aminophylline 500 mg IV, is a bronchodilator that is less commonly used now due to its narrow therapeutic window and potential for toxicity, making it less preferred than Albuterol for initial treatment of wheezing.

4. What are the expected symptoms in a patient with compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Localized swelling and redness
C. Fever and swelling
D. Weakness and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms are classic signs of compartment syndrome, which is a serious condition characterized by reduced circulation in a closed muscle compartment. The pain is typically severe and disproportionate to the injury, and if left untreated, it can lead to tissue damage and loss of function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the hallmark symptoms of compartment syndrome. Localized swelling and redness may be present but are not specific to this condition. Fever and swelling are more indicative of inflammation or infection, while weakness and fatigue are nonspecific and do not typically occur in isolation in compartment syndrome.

5. What is the primary concern for a patient with a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³?

A. Increased risk of severe infection
B. Increased risk of anemia
C. Increased risk of bleeding
D. Increased risk of dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³ indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.