ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What should a healthcare professional do if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?
- A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
- B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
- C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
- D. Increase the flow of the enema solution
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the healthcare professional should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema solution, making it more comfortable for the patient. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but it should not be the first step when cramping occurs. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice C) may exacerbate the cramping, so it is not the best course of action. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice D) will likely worsen the cramping and should be avoided.
2. What is the initial nursing action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Check the patient's urine output
- C. Check cardiac enzymes
- D. Obtain IV access
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority initial action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and reducing chest pain. Checking the patient's urine output (choice B) and cardiac enzymes (choice C) are important assessments but are not the first priority when managing acute chest pain. Obtaining IV access (choice D) is essential for administering medications and fluids, but administering sublingual nitroglycerin takes precedence in the initial management of chest pain in acute coronary syndrome.
3. What is the primary concern for a patient with a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³?
- A. Increased risk of severe infection
- B. Increased risk of anemia
- C. Increased risk of bleeding
- D. Increased risk of dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³ indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.
4. What teaching should be provided to a patient following an escharotomy for burn injuries?
- A. Monitor for infection
- B. Restrict fluid intake
- C. Avoid physical activity
- D. Limit phosphorus to 1,500 mg/day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Following an escharotomy for burn injuries, patients should be taught to monitor for infection and care for the incision site. Choice A is the correct answer because infection is a common risk after a procedure involving incisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Restricting fluid intake is not typically advised after an escharotomy; avoiding physical activity may vary depending on the individual's condition and should be guided by healthcare providers; and limiting phosphorus to 1,500 mg/day is not directly related to post-escharotomy care.
5. A patient diagnosed with hypokalemia is at risk for which condition?
- A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Seizures
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients diagnosed with hypokalemia are at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias due to low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can lead to abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, potentially causing irregular heart rhythms. Muscle weakness (Choice B) is a symptom commonly associated with hypokalemia, but the question asks about conditions the patient is at risk for, not specific symptoms. Seizures (Choice C) are not typically associated with hypokalemia; they are more commonly linked with conditions such as epilepsy. Bradycardia (Choice D) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a typical risk associated with hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly observed in patients with low potassium levels.
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