ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. A nurse misreads a glucose level and administers insulin for a blood glucose of 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL. What is the priority intervention?
- A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
- B. Monitor for hyperkalemia
- C. Administer glucose IV
- D. Document the incident
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. In this scenario, the nurse administered insulin based on a misread glucose level, which could lead to hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin action lowering blood glucose levels. Monitoring for hypoglycemia allows for prompt recognition and intervention if blood glucose levels drop significantly. Choice B, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is incorrect as administering insulin would not cause hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering glucose IV, is not appropriate at this time since the patient's blood glucose level is already elevated. Choice D, documenting the incident, is important but not the priority at this moment when patient safety is at risk due to potential hypoglycemia.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication can cause your urine to turn a dark color.
- B. Expect immediate relief after taking this medication.
- C. Take the medication with a high protein food.
- D. Skip a dose of the medication if you experience dizziness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching is that carbidopa/levodopa can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this common side effect. Choice B is incorrect because immediate relief is not expected; therapeutic effects may take weeks to months. Choice C is incorrect as carbidopa/levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not skip doses without consulting their healthcare provider, even if they experience dizziness.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?
- A. The dressing was changed 7 days ago
- B. The circumference of the client's upper arm has increased by 10%
- C. The catheter has not been used in 8 hours
- D. The catheter has been flushed with 10 mL of sterile saline after medication use
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An increase in the circumference of the client's upper arm by 10% could indicate deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition. Deep vein thrombosis can impede blood flow and potentially lead to life-threatening complications. Therefore, the nurse should notify the provider immediately about this finding. Choice A is not an immediate concern as PICC dressing changes are usually done every 7 days. Choice C is a normal finding as catheters may not be used for certain periods. Choice D is a correct procedure for maintaining catheter patency after medication use.
4. What intervention is required when continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Clamp the chest tube
- C. Replace the chest tube
- D. Continue monitoring the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, tightening the connections of the chest tube system is the appropriate intervention. This action can often resolve an air leak, which is the common cause of continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing it is not recommended as the first-line intervention because it may lead to complications or unnecessary tube changes. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without addressing the air leak would delay necessary corrective action, potentially causing respiratory compromise in the patient. Therefore, tightening the connections of the chest tube system is the most suitable initial step to manage continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
5. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. Hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.
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