Nursing Elites

1. A nurse misreads a glucose level and administers insulin for a blood glucose of 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL. What is the priority intervention?

• A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• B. Monitor for hyperkalemia
• C. Administer glucose IV
• D. Document the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. In this scenario, the nurse administered insulin based on a misread glucose level, which could lead to hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin action lowering blood glucose levels. Monitoring for hypoglycemia allows for prompt recognition and intervention if blood glucose levels drop significantly. Choice B, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is incorrect as administering insulin would not cause hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering glucose IV, is not appropriate at this time since the patient's blood glucose level is already elevated. Choice D, documenting the incident, is important but not the priority at this moment when patient safety is at risk due to potential hypoglycemia.

2. What is the first intervention for a patient admitted with unstable angina?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin
• B. Obtain cardiac enzymes
• C. Start IV fluids
• D. Monitor for chest pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a patient admitted with unstable angina is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps to relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart, thereby reducing cardiac workload. This intervention aims to alleviate symptoms and prevent further cardiac damage. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (Choice B) is important for diagnosing a myocardial infarction but is not the initial intervention for unstable angina. Starting IV fluids (Choice C) may be indicated in specific cases like hypovolemia but is not the primary intervention for unstable angina. Monitoring for chest pain (Choice D) is essential but taking action to alleviate the pain, like administering nitroglycerin, is the primary focus in the initial management of unstable angina.

3. What intervention should the nurse take for a patient experiencing delayed wound healing?

• A. Monitor serum albumin levels
• B. Apply a dry dressing
• C. Administer antibiotics
• D. Change the wound dressing every 8 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial for patients with delayed wound healing. Low albumin levels indicate a lack of protein, which can impair the healing process and increase the risk of infection. By monitoring serum albumin levels, the nurse can assess the patient's nutritional status and make necessary interventions to promote wound healing. Applying a dry dressing (Choice B) may be appropriate depending on the wound characteristics, but it does not address the underlying cause of delayed healing. Administering antibiotics (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for delayed wound healing unless there is an active infection present. Changing the wound dressing every 8 hours (Choice D) may lead to excessive disruption of the wound bed and hinder the healing process.

4. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.

5. What is a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST elevation
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. When potassium levels are low, it can lead to changes in the ECG, such as T wave flattening. This alteration is important to recognize as it indicates potential electrolyte imbalances. ST elevation (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Widened QRS complex (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperkalemia.

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