Nursing Elites

1. After a healthcare provider misreads a glucose level and administers insulin, what is the priority intervention?

• A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• B. Administer glucose IV
• C. Document the incident
• D. Monitor for hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Administering insulin based on a misread glucose level can lead to hypoglycemia. Monitoring for hypoglycemia is crucial as it is a potential adverse effect of the insulin administration. Administering glucose IV (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of hypoglycemia yet. Documenting the incident (Choice C) is important but not the immediate priority over patient safety. Monitoring for hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not the priority after administering insulin in response to a misread glucose level.

2. What should be the first medication given for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
• C. Methylprednisolone IV
• D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line medication for treating wheezing caused by an allergic reaction as it works as a bronchodilator, helping to relieve the symptoms of wheezing and shortness of breath quickly. Cromolyn (choice B) is used more for preventing asthma symptoms rather than for immediate relief. Methylprednisolone IV (choice C) and Aminophylline 500 mg IV (choice D) are not the first-line treatments for wheezing due to an allergic reaction.

3. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

4. What is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Serum albumin levels
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it serves as a key indicator of immune function. A count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choice B, serum albumin levels, though important for assessing nutritional status, is not the priority lab value for HIV monitoring. Choice C, white blood cell count, is a nonspecific measure of immune function and may not accurately reflect the status of the immune system in HIV patients. Choice D, hemoglobin levels, are essential for evaluating anemia but are not the primary lab value for monitoring HIV.

5. A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What action should the nurse take to relieve the discomfort?

• A. Lower the height of the solution container
• B. Increase the flow of enema solution
• C. Remove the enema tubing
• D. Stop the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to relieve abdominal cramping after enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment slows down the flow rate of the enema solution, which can help reduce discomfort by decreasing the pressure on the patient's abdomen. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) would exacerbate the cramping by introducing more solution quickly. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) is not necessary to address the cramping, and stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not be needed if adjusting the height of the solution container can resolve the issue.

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