a patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury that causes cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles what t
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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Necrosis. Necrosis is the process of cell death characterized by cell swelling, breakdown of organelles, and eventual rupture, often following ischemic injury like a heart attack. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adaptation refers to the ability of cells to adjust to changes in their environment. Pathologic calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs in a controlled, orderly manner.

2. What is the characteristic of the condition of leukemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'A malignant growth of white blood cells.' Leukemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow, leading to an overproduction of abnormal white blood cells. These cells are malignant and impair the normal function of healthy blood cells. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because leukemia does not involve skin cells or benign growths; instead, it specifically refers to the abnormal proliferation of white blood cells.

3. What is a potential implication of multiple dark bands on the nails?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Multiple dark bands on the nails can be a concerning sign of malignant melanoma, a type of skin cancer that can affect the nails. While some nail changes are considered normal variants, dark bands should not be dismissed lightly as they can indicate a serious condition like melanoma. Nail fungus typically presents differently, causing discoloration, thickening, or distortion of the nail without distinct dark bands. Additionally, aging can lead to various nail changes, but dark bands alone are not a common feature of normal aging.

4. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with this diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right lower quadrant cramping. Crohn's disease commonly presents with abdominal pain, particularly in the right lower quadrant. Choice B, severe bloody diarrhea, is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Choice C, nausea and vomiting, are not typical symptoms of Crohn's disease. Choice D is incorrect as Crohn's disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, not just the rectum.

5. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for during androgen therapy for hypogonadism is liver dysfunction. Androgen therapy can lead to hepatotoxicity, so monitoring liver function tests is crucial during treatment. Kidney dysfunction (Choice B), heart failure (Choice C), and pulmonary embolism (Choice D) are not commonly associated with androgen therapy and are less likely adverse effects compared to liver dysfunction.

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