a patient who is undergoing treatment for cytomegalovirus received his first dose of iv ganciclovir 3 days ago when reviewing this patients most recen a patient who is undergoing treatment for cytomegalovirus received his first dose of iv ganciclovir 3 days ago when reviewing this patients most recen
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank

1. A patient who is undergoing treatment for cytomegalovirus received his first dose of IV ganciclovir 3 days ago. When reviewing this patient's most recent blood work, what abnormality should the nurse most likely attribute to the use of this drug?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count 118,000/mm3 (low). Ganciclovir, used to treat cytomegalovirus, is known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased platelet count (thrombocytopenia). This condition can increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with ganciclovir therapy. High hemoglobin levels (choice A) are not commonly seen with ganciclovir treatment. INR elevation (choice B) is associated with coagulation abnormalities, which are not a typical side effect of ganciclovir. Elevated leukocyte count (choice D) is not a common consequence of ganciclovir use.

2. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse include in the patient education about the use of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, or redness in the affected limb, and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes are a common side effect of tamoxifen but not a critical concern like venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with a decreased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because while weight gain can occur with tamoxifen, it is not as crucial to educate the patient about as the risk of venous thromboembolism.

3. The nurse has administered 4 oz of orange juice to an alert patient whose blood glucose was 62 mg/dL. Fifteen minutes later, the blood glucose is 67 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to give the patient 4 to 6 oz more orange juice. The patient's blood glucose has increased from 62 mg/dL to 67 mg/dL after consuming the initial 4 oz of orange juice, indicating that the treatment is effective. Providing additional orange juice will help further raise the blood glucose levels. Administering glucagon (Choice B) is not necessary as the patient's blood glucose is already rising. Having the patient eat peanut butter with crackers (Choice C) is a slower-acting option compared to orange juice. Notifying the healthcare provider about the hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the patient's blood glucose is improving.

4. When an individual uses the defense mechanism of displacement after the boss openly disagrees with suggestions, what behavior would be expected from this individual?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The individual using the defense mechanism of displacement would criticize a coworker after being confronted by the boss. Displacement involves transferring feelings from one target to a neutral or less-threatening target, hence the individual criticizing a coworker instead of directly confronting the boss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the individual is not likely to assertively confront the boss when using displacement. Choice B is incorrect as leaving the meeting to work out in the gym is not a typical response when displacement is used. Choice D is incorrect as taking the boss out to lunch does not align with the concept of displacement, which involves redirecting emotions onto another target.

5. The client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 is admitted to the hospital with cellulitis of the right foot secondary to an insect bite. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering intravenous antibiotics is the priority intervention in this situation. Cellulitis is a bacterial infection that can spread rapidly, especially in individuals with diabetes. Immediate antibiotic therapy is crucial to prevent the infection from worsening and causing serious complications. Applying warm moist packs, elevating the foot, and teaching the client about skin and foot care are important interventions but should come after initiating antibiotic treatment to address the underlying infection.

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