Nursing Elites

1. An adult patient has begun treatment with fluconazole. The nurse should recognize the need to likely discontinue the drug if the patient develops which of the following signs or symptoms?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Weight gain
• C. Iron deficiency anemia
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Fluconazole, an antifungal medication, can rarely cause hepatotoxicity, which may manifest as jaundice. Monitoring for signs of liver dysfunction, such as jaundice, is crucial during fluconazole therapy. Weight gain, iron deficiency anemia, and hematuria are not commonly associated with fluconazole use and are not indications for discontinuing the drug.

2. A group of nursing students and their professor are engaged in a service learning project and will be caring for patients in Haiti. What medication should be administered to prevent the development of malaria?

• A. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• B. Oprelvekin (Neumega)
• C. Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen)
• D. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen). Chloroquine is a medication used to prevent and treat malaria. It works by killing the malaria parasite in the red blood cells. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is an antibiotic used to treat various bacterial and parasitic infections, not malaria. Oprelvekin (Neumega) is a medication used to stimulate platelet production. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine) is a local anesthetic used for epidural anesthesia. Therefore, Chloroquine phosphate is the appropriate medication for preventing malaria in this scenario.

3. During the home visit of a client with dementia, the nurse notes that an adult daughter persistently corrects her father’s misperceptions of reality, even when the father becomes upset and anxious. Which intervention should the nurse teach the caregiver?

• A. Anxiety-reducing measures
• B. Positive reinforcement
• C. Reality orientation techniques
• D. Validation techniques

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Validation techniques. In dementia care, using validation techniques involves acknowledging the person's feelings and reality, even if it differs from actual events or facts. It helps in reducing the client's anxiety and distress. In this scenario, the daughter persistently correcting her father's misperceptions can escalate his anxiety. Teaching the daughter validation techniques will encourage her to validate her father's feelings and perceptions, ultimately promoting a more supportive and less confrontational environment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect in this context. While anxiety-reducing measures can be beneficial, the primary issue here is the father's misperceptions being consistently corrected. Positive reinforcement focuses on rewarding desired behaviors, which is not directly related to the situation described. Reality orientation techniques involve constantly reminding the person of the correct time, place, and other details, which may not be suitable for someone with dementia experiencing distress.

4. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

5. Which of the following disturbances would cause a client to experience gout?

• A. Serotonin receptors
• B. Uric acid metabolism
• C. Liver function
• D. Cardiac function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gout is caused by a disturbance in uric acid metabolism, leading to the accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints. Serotonin receptors (Choice A) are not related to gout. Liver function (Choice C) is important for metabolism but is not directly linked to gout development. Cardiac function (Choice D) is primarily related to the heart's functioning and not associated with gout.

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