Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a 4-year-old girl have sought care because their daughter has admitted to chewing and swallowing imported toy figurines that have been determined to be made of lead. Which of the following blood tests should the care team prioritize?

• A. White blood cell levels with differential
• B. Red blood cell levels and morphology
• C. Urea and creatinine levels
• D. Liver function panel

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red blood cell levels and morphology. Lead poisoning primarily affects red blood cells, causing anemia. Therefore, the priority test would be to assess red blood cell levels and morphology. Choice A (White blood cell levels with differential) is incorrect as lead poisoning does not primarily affect white blood cells. Choice C (Urea and creatinine levels) is unrelated to lead poisoning and not a priority in this scenario. Choice D (Liver function panel) is also not the priority as lead poisoning's primary impact is on the red blood cells, not the liver.

2. A 37-year-old woman has a 10 pack-year smoking history and has been using oral contraceptives for the past 2 years. The nurse should plan health education interventions knowing that this patient faces an increased risk of

• A. osteoporosis.
• B. dementia.
• C. myocardial infarction.
• D. deep vein thrombosis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: myocardial infarction. Women aged 35 and older who smoke, especially with a history of 10 pack-years like in this case, face an increased risk of cardiovascular disorders, including myocardial infarction, when using oral contraceptives. Choice A, osteoporosis, is incorrect because smoking and oral contraceptives do not significantly increase the risk of osteoporosis. Choice B, dementia, is not directly associated with smoking, oral contraceptives, or their combination. Choice D, deep vein thrombosis, is a risk associated with oral contraceptives, especially in combination with smoking, but the highest increased risk in this case is for myocardial infarction.

3. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?

• A. “AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease.”
• B. “AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains.”
• C. “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it.”
• D. “AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.

4. A patient who is being administered isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis has a yellow color in the sclera of her eye. What other finding would lead you to believe that hepatotoxicity has developed?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Numbness
• C. Diminished vision
• D. Light-colored stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diarrhea. Hepatotoxicity caused by isoniazid can present with various symptoms, including yellow discoloration of the sclera of the eyes, which indicates jaundice. Another common sign of hepatotoxicity is gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which can occur due to liver dysfunction affecting bile production and digestion. Numbness (choice B) is more commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy caused by isoniazid, while diminished vision (choice C) and light-colored stools (choice D) are not typical manifestations of hepatotoxicity.

5. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.

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