Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a 4-year-old girl have sought care because their daughter has admitted to chewing and swallowing imported toy figurines that have been determined to be made of lead. Which of the following blood tests should the care team prioritize?

• A. White blood cell levels with differential
• B. Red blood cell levels and morphology
• C. Urea and creatinine levels
• D. Liver function panel

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red blood cell levels and morphology. Lead poisoning primarily affects red blood cells, causing anemia. Therefore, the priority test would be to assess red blood cell levels and morphology. Choice A (White blood cell levels with differential) is incorrect as lead poisoning does not primarily affect white blood cells. Choice C (Urea and creatinine levels) is unrelated to lead poisoning and not a priority in this scenario. Choice D (Liver function panel) is also not the priority as lead poisoning's primary impact is on the red blood cells, not the liver.

2. What is the primary action of bisphosphonates when prescribed to a patient with osteoporosis?

• A. It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density.
• B. It stimulates new bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines, which helps build stronger bones.
• D. It decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys, helping to maintain bone density.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density." Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting bone resorption carried out by osteoclasts, thereby preventing the breakdown of bones and helping to maintain or increase bone density in patients with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bisphosphonates do not directly stimulate new bone formation, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or decrease calcium excretion by the kidneys.

3. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?

• A. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
• B. Bacterial invasion
• C. Impaired arterial blood supply
• D. Metaplastic cellular changes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.

4. A client has experienced a pontine stroke which has resulted in severe hemiparesis. What priority assessment should the nurse perform prior to allowing the client to eat or drink from the food tray?

• A. Evaluate the client's gag reflex.
• B. Assess the client's bowel sounds.
• C. Check the client's pupil reaction.
• D. Monitor the client's heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's gag reflex. When a client has experienced a stroke resulting in severe hemiparesis, assessing the gag reflex is crucial before allowing them to eat or drink. This assessment helps prevent aspiration, a serious complication that can occur due to impaired swallowing ability. Assessing bowel sounds (Choice B), pupil reaction (Choice C), or heart rate (Choice D) are important assessments but are not the priority in this situation where the risk of aspiration is higher.

5. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:

• A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
• B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
• C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
• D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.

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