Nursing Elites

1. A patient develops itching and burning of the vaginal vault while taking an anti-infective to treat strep throat. What fungal agent has most likely caused the burning and itching?

• A. Cryptococcus neoformans
• B. Candida albicans
• C. Aspergillus
• D. Dermatophytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida albicans. Candida albicans is a common fungal agent responsible for causing vaginal yeast infections characterized by itching and burning. It is known to overgrow in the vagina, especially when the normal vaginal flora is disrupted, such as during antibiotic use. Cryptococcus neoformans is more associated with causing meningitis in immunocompromised individuals, not vaginal symptoms. Aspergillus is more commonly associated with lung infections and allergic reactions, not vaginal infections. Dermatophytes typically cause skin infections like ringworm, not vaginal symptoms.

2. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?

• A. Temporal arteritis
• B. Trigeminal neuralgia
• C. Migraine headache
• D. Cluster headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.

3. Which of the following hormones helps to raise the blood sugar level to help maintain homeostasis?

• A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
• B. Insulin
• C. Glucagon
• D. Thyroxine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Glucagon. Glucagon helps raise blood sugar levels by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream, thus aiding in maintaining homeostasis. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), choice A, functions in regulating water balance in the body, not blood sugar levels. Insulin, choice B, lowers blood sugar levels by facilitating glucose uptake by cells. Thyroxine, choice D, is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland that regulates metabolism and has no direct effect on blood sugar levels.

4. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What key instruction should the nurse provide regarding the administration of this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
• C. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• D. Apply the medication once a week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting healthcare providers can be harmful. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food is not necessary for this specific drug. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is typically taken orally, not applied topically.

5. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during testosterone therapy?

• A. Testosterone therapy increases the risk of cardiovascular events, so regular monitoring is essential.
• B. Testosterone therapy can cause liver dysfunction, so liver function tests should be monitored regularly.
• C. Testosterone therapy can lead to prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Testosterone therapy can lead to bone fractures, so bone density should be monitored.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Testosterone therapy is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient for cardiovascular complications. While monitoring liver function tests (choice B) and bone density (choice D) may be important in some cases, the primary concern during testosterone therapy is the risk of cardiovascular events. Prostate cancer screenings (choice C) are not directly related to testosterone therapy's adverse effects.

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