ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. A patient develops itching and burning of the vaginal vault while taking an anti-infective to treat strep throat. What fungal agent has most likely caused the burning and itching?
- A. Cryptococcus neoformans
- B. Candida albicans
- C. Aspergillus
- D. Dermatophytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida albicans. Candida albicans is a common fungal agent responsible for causing vaginal yeast infections characterized by itching and burning. It is known to overgrow in the vagina, especially when the normal vaginal flora is disrupted, such as during antibiotic use. Cryptococcus neoformans is more associated with causing meningitis in immunocompromised individuals, not vaginal symptoms. Aspergillus is more commonly associated with lung infections and allergic reactions, not vaginal infections. Dermatophytes typically cause skin infections like ringworm, not vaginal symptoms.
2. A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?
- A. I should avoid moving my face excessively to prevent worsening of symptoms.
- B. This condition usually resolves on its own within a few weeks or months.
- C. Bell's palsy is caused by a stroke and requires immediate medical treatment.
- D. I will need to take antiviral medication for the rest of my life to manage this condition.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.
3. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What key point should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
- D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism." It is crucial for patients to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots while taking tamoxifen. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes and menopausal symptoms are common side effects of tamoxifen, but they are not the key point to emphasize. Choice C is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are potential side effects of tamoxifen but not the key point for patient education. Choice D is incorrect as tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of bone loss.
4. During a follow-up visit, a patient being treated for latent tuberculosis mentions inconsistent drug intake. What should subsequent health education focus on?
- A. The importance of adhering to the treatment regimen to reduce adverse effects
- B. The necessity of consistently taking the prescribed drugs for TB cure
- C. Matching drug dosages carefully to signs and symptoms
- D. The consequence of nonadherence leading to antiretroviral use
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because consistent intake of prescribed drugs is crucial for curing tuberculosis. By emphasizing the necessity of following the treatment plan, the patient is more likely to achieve a successful outcome. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the risk of adverse effects rather than the primary goal of TB cure. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the issue of inconsistent drug intake. Choice D is also incorrect as it introduces a different treatment (antiretrovirals) not relevant to latent tuberculosis.
5. A 74-year-old woman states that many of her peers underwent hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in years past. The woman asks the nurse why her primary care provider has not yet proposed this treatment for her. What fact should underlie the nurse's response to the woman?
- A. The risks of stroke and breast cancer are unacceptably high in women taking HRT.
- B. HRT was found to cause mood disturbances in many women who used it long term.
- C. HRT was found to be a significant risk factor for bone fractures and osteoporosis.
- D. The risks of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease were found to be significantly higher in women using HRT.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the main reason HRT is not recommended for all women is due to the increased risks of stroke and breast cancer associated with its use. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been linked to an elevated risk of stroke and breast cancer, which outweigh its potential benefits for many individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the primary concerns regarding HRT use. While HRT can indeed cause mood disturbances and may affect bone health, the significant risks of stroke and breast cancer are the primary reasons why healthcare providers may choose not to recommend HRT for some women.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access