ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A client with a pneumothorax is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding would indicate that the treatment is effective?
- A. Increased respiratory rate
- B. Decreased oxygen saturation levels
- C. Improved breath sounds on the affected side
- D. Increased dyspnea and chest pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a pneumothorax receiving oxygen therapy, improved breath sounds on the affected side would indicate effective treatment. This finding suggests that the collapsed lung is re-expanding, allowing air to flow more freely in and out of the affected area. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Increased respiratory rate, decreased oxygen saturation levels, and increased dyspnea and chest pain are signs of ineffective treatment or worsening of the condition in a client with a pneumothorax.
2. When a healthcare professional observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6 to 14 hours after death, the healthcare professional should document this finding as _____ present.
- A. Livor mortis
- B. Gangrene
- C. Algor mortis
- D. Rigor mortis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rigor mortis. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of muscles after death, typically beginning within 6 to 14 hours. Livor mortis (choice A) refers to the pooling of blood in the lowest tissues causing discoloration, gangrene (choice B) is the death of body tissue due to lack of blood flow, and algor mortis (choice C) is the cooling of the body after death.
3. Which of the following describes the condition in the body of clients experiencing hypovolemia?
- A. Increased urine retention
- B. Insufficient circulating blood volume
- C. Bounding peripheral pulses
- D. Crackles auscultated in the lungs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insufficient circulating blood volume. Hypovolemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the volume of blood plasma. This reduction in circulating blood volume can lead to inadequate perfusion of tissues and organs, potentially resulting in shock if left untreated. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased urine retention, bounding peripheral pulses, and crackles auscultated in the lungs are not typical manifestations of hypovolemia.
4. A patient with a complex medical history is considering the use of oral contraceptives. The nurse should be aware that many antibiotics and antiseizure medications cause what effect when combined with oral contraceptives?
- A. Increased risk of pregnancy
- B. Increased blood pressure
- C. Increased risk of thromboembolism
- D. Increased gastric acid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of pregnancy. Certain antibiotics and anticonvulsants can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by inducing liver enzymes that metabolize the hormones more quickly. This interaction can lead to a decreased contraceptive effect, thereby increasing the risk of pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the effect of antibiotics and antiseizure medications on oral contraceptives.
5. In a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) prescribed tamsulosin (Flomax), what is the expected therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
- B. Increased urinary output
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Increased hair growth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Tamsulosin is prescribed for patients with BPH to relax the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation helps in relieving the symptoms of BPH, such as decreased urinary flow, frequent urination, and urgency. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not increase urinary output but rather improves the flow of urine by relaxing the muscles. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin is not primarily used for reducing blood pressure. Choice D is also incorrect as tamsulosin does not promote increased hair growth.
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