ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A client with a pneumothorax is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding would indicate that the treatment is effective?
- A. Increased respiratory rate
- B. Decreased oxygen saturation levels
- C. Improved breath sounds on the affected side
- D. Increased dyspnea and chest pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a pneumothorax receiving oxygen therapy, improved breath sounds on the affected side would indicate effective treatment. This finding suggests that the collapsed lung is re-expanding, allowing air to flow more freely in and out of the affected area. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Increased respiratory rate, decreased oxygen saturation levels, and increased dyspnea and chest pain are signs of ineffective treatment or worsening of the condition in a client with a pneumothorax.
2. A client with asthma has developed viral pharyngitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Petechiae on the chest and abdomen
- B. WBC 16,000/mm3
- C. Negative throat culture
- D. Severe hyperemia of pharyngeal mucosa
Correct answer: Negative throat culture
Rationale: Viral pharyngitis is typically caused by a virus, not bacteria, so a negative throat culture is an expected finding. The presence of petechiae on the chest and abdomen (Choice A) is not a common manifestation of viral pharyngitis. Elevated WBC count (Choice B) is more indicative of a bacterial infection rather than a viral one. Severe hyperemia of the pharyngeal mucosa (Choice D) is a possible finding in pharyngitis but is not specific to viral pharyngitis.
3. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
- B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy.
- C. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.
- D. Stop the medication if you experience a dry mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so it is important for the client to refrain from activities that require alertness until they are aware of how the medication affects them. Choice A is incorrect because a rash is not a common side effect of clonidine. Choice B is incorrect as increased salivation is not an expected side effect of clonidine. Choice D is also incorrect as dry mouth is a common side effect of clonidine, but it is not a reason to stop the medication unless severe or bothersome. Therefore, the priority instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known to ensure safety.
4. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT levels
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor INR levels
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.
5. A patient with GERD is being taught by a nurse. What should the patient avoid?
- A. Avoid mint and pepper
- B. Increase water intake during meals
- C. Eat frequent small meals
- D. Consume more spicy foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with GERD should avoid mint and spicy foods as they can trigger reflux. Choice B ('Increase water intake during meals') is not recommended for GERD patients as it can worsen symptoms by distending the stomach. Choice C ('Eat frequent small meals') is beneficial for GERD patients to prevent excessive stomach distension. Choice D ('Consume more spicy foods') is incorrect as spicy foods can exacerbate GERD symptoms.
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