Nursing Elites

1. A female patient has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and begun multiple-drug therapy. The woman has asked the nurse why it is necessary for her to take several different drugs instead of one single drug. How should the nurse best respond to the patient's question?

• A. “Multiple drugs are used because doctors need to combat the TB bacteria from different angles to effectively treat the infection.”
• B. “The use of multiple drugs prevents the development of drug-resistant TB.”
• C. “Multiple drugs are prescribed because the final testing results for TB can take up to 3 weeks to confirm the most effective treatment.”
• D. “Multiple drugs are used in order to speed up the course of treatment.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using multiple drugs in tuberculosis treatment helps prevent the development of drug-resistant TB. This approach is crucial because if the infection is not completely eradicated, the remaining bacteria may become resistant to the single drug used, making future treatments less effective. Choice A is incorrect because the use of multiple drugs is not due to uncertainty about which drug will work, but rather to address the bacteria from different angles. Choice C is incorrect as it misleads the patient about the reason for using multiple drugs. Choice D is also incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple drugs is not to speed up treatment but to ensure effectiveness and prevent resistance.

2. A child with a serious fungal infection is receiving amphotericin B parenterally. Which of the following minerals will the patient most likely be required to receive?

• A. Chloride
• B. Magnesium
• C. Glucose
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is receiving amphotericin B, which is known to cause renal toxicity, they are most likely to require magnesium supplementation. Amphotericin B can lead to renal loss of magnesium, potassium, and calcium. Magnesium is an essential mineral that plays a vital role in various physiological functions, and its levels need to be monitored and supplemented when necessary. Chloride, glucose, and sodium are not typically supplemented in the context of amphotericin B therapy for a serious fungal infection.

3. Which of the following disorders is more likely to be associated with blood in the stool?

• A. Gastroesophageal reflux
• B. Crohn's disease
• C. Irritable bowel syndrome
• D. Colon cancer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Colon cancer. Colon cancer commonly presents with blood in the stool due to bleeding from the tumor. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) is associated with heartburn and regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus. Crohn's disease (Choice B) is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can cause symptoms like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss, but it does not typically present with blood in the stool as a primary symptom. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not usually involve blood in the stool as a prominent feature.

4. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within

• A. 48 hours.
• B. a week to 10 days.
• C. 2 to 3 weeks.
• D. 4 to 6 weeks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.

5. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?

• A. Temporal arteritis
• B. Trigeminal neuralgia
• C. Migraine headache
• D. Cluster headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.

Similar Questions