Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a young woman about the use of hormonal contraceptives, a nurse should emphasize that these drugs are most effective when taken:

• A. Immediately after sexual intercourse.
• B. At the same time each day.
• C. Before going to bed at night.
• D. On an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each day.' Hormonal contraceptives should be taken consistently at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels, which is crucial for their effectiveness. Taking them at random times can increase the risk of contraceptive failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking hormonal contraceptives immediately after sexual intercourse, before going to bed at night, or on an empty stomach does not align with the recommended usage instructions for these drugs.

2. A 21-year-old male is brought to the ED following a night of partying in his fraternity. His friends found him 'asleep' and couldn't get him to respond. They cannot recall how many alcoholic beverages he drank the night before. While educating a student nurse and the man's friends, the nurse begins by explaining that alcohol is:

• A. A water-soluble compound that is easily absorbed by the gastric lining of the stomach.
• B. Very lipid-soluble and rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier.
• C. Able to reverse the transport of some substances to remove them from the brain.
• D. Very likely to cause sedation and therefore the client just needs to sleep it off.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alcohol is very lipid-soluble and rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier, leading to its effects on the central nervous system and causing symptoms like sedation and unconsciousness. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is not water-soluble; it is lipid-soluble. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol does not reverse the transport of substances from the brain. Choice D is incorrect as sedation from alcohol is not a reason to just 'sleep it off' in cases of alcohol poisoning, which can be life-threatening and requires medical attention.

3. A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?

• A. Clarithromycin
• B. Pyrazinamide
• C. Rifapentine (Priftin)
• D. Azithromycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.

4. A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?

• A. Decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys.
• B. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium.
• C. Stimulates bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
• D. Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.

5. A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

• A. History of hypertension
• B. Use of nitrates
• C. Use of antihypertensive medications
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients using nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and tadalafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of hypertension, the use of antihypertensive medications, and a history of peptic ulcer disease are not direct contraindications for tadalafil use.

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